The definitions in this section apply throughout this chapter unless the context clearly requires otherwise.
a practitioner authorized to prescribe (or, by the practitioner's authorized agent); or
the patient or research subject at the direction and in the presence of the practitioner.
"Agent" means an authorized person who acts on behalf of or at the direction of a manufacturer, distributor, or dispenser. It does not include a common or contract carrier, public warehouseperson, or employee of the carrier or warehouseperson.
"Board" means the Washington state liquor and cannabis board.
"Cannabis" means all parts of the plant Cannabis, whether growing or not, with a THC concentration greater than 0.3 percent on a dry weight basis; the seeds thereof; the resin extracted from any part of the plant; and every compound, manufacture, salt, derivative, mixture, or preparation of the plant, its seeds or resin. The term does not include:
The mature stalks of the plant, fiber produced from the stalks, oil or cake made from the seeds of the plant, any other compound, manufacture, salt, derivative, mixture, or preparation of the mature stalks (except the resin extracted therefrom), fiber, oil, or cake, or the sterilized seed of the plant which is incapable of germination; or
Hemp or industrial hemp as defined in RCW 15.140.020, seeds used for licensed hemp production under chapter 15.140 RCW.
"Cannabis concentrates" means products consisting wholly or in part of the resin extracted from any part of the plant Cannabis and having a THC concentration greater than ten percent.
"Cannabis processor" means a person licensed by the board to process cannabis into cannabis concentrates, useable cannabis, and cannabis-infused products, package and label cannabis concentrates, useable cannabis, and cannabis-infused products for sale in retail outlets, and sell cannabis concentrates, useable cannabis, and cannabis-infused products at wholesale to cannabis retailers.
"Cannabis producer" means a person licensed by the board to produce and sell cannabis at wholesale to cannabis processors and other cannabis producers.
"Cannabis products" means useable cannabis, cannabis concentrates, and cannabis-infused products as defined in this section.
"Cannabis researcher" means a person licensed by the board to produce, process, and possess cannabis for the purposes of conducting research on cannabis and cannabis-derived drug products.
"Cannabis retailer" means a person licensed by the board to sell cannabis concentrates, useable cannabis, and cannabis-infused products in a retail outlet.
"Cannabis-infused products" means products that contain cannabis or cannabis extracts, are intended for human use, are derived from cannabis as defined in subsection (d) of this section, and have a THC concentration no greater than ten percent. The term "cannabis-infused products" does not include either useable cannabis or cannabis concentrates.
"CBD concentration" has the meaning provided in RCW 69.51A.010.
"CBD product" means any product containing or consisting of cannabidiol.
"Commission" means the pharmacy quality assurance commission.
"Controlled substance" means a drug, substance, or immediate precursor included in Schedules I through V as set forth in federal or state laws, or federal or commission rules, but does not include hemp or industrial hemp as defined in RCW 15.140.020.
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"Controlled substance analog" means a substance the chemical structure of which is substantially similar to the chemical structure of a controlled substance in Schedule I or II and:
that has a stimulant, depressant, or hallucinogenic effect on the central nervous system substantially similar to the stimulant, depressant, or hallucinogenic effect on the central nervous system of a controlled substance included in Schedule I or II; or
The term does not include:
a controlled substance;
a substance for which there is an approved new drug application;
a substance with respect to which an exemption is in effect for investigational use by a particular person under Section 505 of the federal food, drug, and cosmetic act, 21 U.S.C. Sec. 355, or chapter 69.77 RCW to the extent conduct with respect to the substance is pursuant to the exemption; or
any substance to the extent not intended for human consumption before an exemption takes effect with respect to the substance.
"Deliver" or "delivery" means the actual or constructive transfer from one person to another of a substance, whether or not there is an agency relationship.
"Department" means the department of health.
"Designated provider" has the meaning provided in RCW 69.51A.010.
"Dispense" means the interpretation of a prescription or order for a controlled substance and, pursuant to that prescription or order, the proper selection, measuring, compounding, labeling, or packaging necessary to prepare that prescription or order for delivery.
"Dispenser" means a practitioner who dispenses.
"Distribute" means to deliver other than by administering or dispensing a controlled substance.
"Distributor" means a person who distributes.
"Drug" means (1) a controlled substance recognized as a drug in the official United States pharmacopoeia/national formulary or the official homeopathic pharmacopoeia of the United States, or any supplement to them; (2) controlled substances intended for use in the diagnosis, cure, mitigation, treatment, or prevention of disease in individuals or animals; (3) controlled substances (other than food) intended to affect the structure or any function of the body of individuals or animals; and (4) controlled substances intended for use as a component of any article specified in (1), (2), or (3) of this subsection. The term does not include devices or their components, parts, or accessories.
"Drug enforcement administration" means the drug enforcement administration in the United States Department of Justice, or its successor agency.
"Electronic communication of prescription information" means the transmission of a prescription or refill authorization for a drug of a practitioner using computer systems. The term does not include a prescription or refill authorization verbally transmitted by telephone nor a facsimile manually signed by the practitioner.
aa. "Immature plant or clone" means a plant or clone that has no flowers, is less than twelve inches in height, and is less than twelve inches in diameter.
bb. "Immediate precursor" means a substance:
that the commission has found to be and by rule designates as being the principal compound commonly used, or produced primarily for use, in the manufacture of a controlled substance;
that is an immediate chemical intermediary used or likely to be used in the manufacture of a controlled substance; and
the control of which is necessary to prevent, curtail, or limit the manufacture of the controlled substance.
dd. "Lot" means a definite quantity of cannabis, cannabis concentrates, useable cannabis, or cannabis-infused product identified by a lot number, every portion or package of which is uniform within recognized tolerances for the factors that appear in the labeling.
ee. "Lot number" must identify the licensee by business or trade name and Washington state unified business identifier number, and the date of harvest or processing for each lot of cannabis, cannabis concentrates, useable cannabis, or cannabis-infused product.
ff. "Manufacture" means the production, preparation, propagation, compounding, conversion, or processing of a controlled substance, either directly or indirectly or by extraction from substances of natural origin, or independently by means of chemical synthesis, or by a combination of extraction and chemical synthesis, and includes any packaging or repackaging of the substance or labeling or relabeling of its container. The term does not include the preparation, compounding, packaging, repackaging, labeling, or relabeling of a controlled substance:
by a practitioner as an incident to the practitioner's administering or dispensing of a controlled substance in the course of the practitioner's professional practice; or
by a practitioner, or by the practitioner's authorized agent under the practitioner's supervision, for the purpose of, or as an incident to, research, teaching, or chemical analysis and not for sale.
gg. "Narcotic drug" means any of the following, whether produced directly or indirectly by extraction from substances of vegetable origin, or independently by means of chemical synthesis, or by a combination of extraction and chemical synthesis:
Opium, opium derivative, and any derivative of opium or opium derivative, including their salts, isomers, and salts of isomers, whenever the existence of the salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation. The term does not include the isoquinoline alkaloids of opium.
Synthetic opiate and any derivative of synthetic opiate, including their isomers, esters, ethers, salts, and salts of isomers, esters, and ethers, whenever the existence of the isomers, esters, ethers, and salts is possible within the specific chemical designation.
Poppy straw and concentrate of poppy straw.
Coca leaves, except coca leaves and extracts of coca leaves from which cocaine, ecgonine, and derivatives or ecgonine or their salts have been removed.
Cocaine, or any salt, isomer, or salt of isomer thereof.
Cocaine base.
Ecgonine, or any derivative, salt, isomer, or salt of isomer thereof.
Any compound, mixture, or preparation containing any quantity of any substance referred to in (1) through (7) of this subsection.
hh. "Opiate" means any substance having an addiction-forming or addiction-sustaining liability similar to morphine or being capable of conversion into a drug having addiction-forming or addiction-sustaining liability. The term includes opium, substances derived from opium (opium derivatives), and synthetic opiates. The term does not include, unless specifically designated as controlled under RCW 69.50.201, the dextrorotatory isomer of 3-methoxy-n-methylmorphinan and its salts (dextromethorphan). The term includes the racemic and levorotatory forms of dextromethorphan.
ii. "Opium poppy" means the plant of the species Papaver somniferum L., except its seeds.
jj. "Person" means individual, corporation, business trust, estate, trust, partnership, association, joint venture, government, governmental subdivision or agency, or any other legal or commercial entity.
kk. "Plant" has the meaning provided in RCW 69.51A.010.
ll. "Poppy straw" means all parts, except the seeds, of the opium poppy, after mowing.
A physician under chapter 18.71 RCW; a physician assistant under chapter 18.71A RCW; an osteopathic physician and surgeon under chapter 18.57 RCW; an optometrist licensed under chapter 18.53 RCW who is certified by the optometry board under RCW 18.53.010 subject to any limitations in RCW 18.53.010; a dentist under chapter 18.32 RCW; a podiatric physician and surgeon under chapter 18.22 RCW; a veterinarian under chapter 18.92 RCW; a registered nurse, advanced registered nurse practitioner, or licensed practical nurse under chapter 18.79 RCW; a naturopathic physician under chapter 18.36A RCW who is licensed under RCW 18.36A.030 subject to any limitations in RCW 18.36A.040; a pharmacist under chapter 18.64 RCW or a scientific investigator under this chapter, licensed, registered or otherwise permitted insofar as is consistent with those licensing laws to distribute, dispense, conduct research with respect to or administer a controlled substance in the course of their professional practice or research in this state.
A pharmacy, hospital or other institution licensed, registered, or otherwise permitted to distribute, dispense, conduct research with respect to or to administer a controlled substance in the course of professional practice or research in this state.
A physician licensed to practice medicine and surgery, a physician licensed to practice osteopathic medicine and surgery, a dentist licensed to practice dentistry, a podiatric physician and surgeon licensed to practice podiatric medicine and surgery, a licensed physician assistant or a licensed osteopathic physician assistant specifically approved to prescribe controlled substances by his or her state's medical commission or equivalent and his or her supervising physician, an advanced registered nurse practitioner licensed to prescribe controlled substances, or a veterinarian licensed to practice veterinary medicine in any state of the United States.
nn. "Prescription" means an order for controlled substances issued by a practitioner duly authorized by law or rule in the state of Washington to prescribe controlled substances within the scope of his or her professional practice for a legitimate medical purpose.
oo. "Production" includes the manufacturing, planting, cultivating, growing, or harvesting of a controlled substance.
pp. "Qualifying patient" has the meaning provided in RCW 69.51A.010.
qq. "Recognition card" has the meaning provided in RCW 69.51A.010.
rr. "Retail outlet" means a location licensed by the board for the retail sale of cannabis concentrates, useable cannabis, and cannabis-infused products.
ss. "Secretary" means the secretary of health or the secretary's designee.
tt. "State," unless the context otherwise requires, means a state of the United States, the District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, or a territory or insular possession subject to the jurisdiction of the United States.
uu. "THC concentration" means percent of delta-9 tetrahydrocannabinol content per dry weight of any part of the plant Cannabis, or per volume or weight of cannabis product, or the combined percent of delta-9 tetrahydrocannabinol and tetrahydrocannabinolic acid in any part of the plant Cannabis regardless of moisture content.
vv. "Ultimate user" means an individual who lawfully possesses a controlled substance for the individual's own use or for the use of a member of the individual's household or for administering to an animal owned by the individual or by a member of the individual's household.
ww. "Useable cannabis" means dried cannabis flowers. The term "useable cannabis" does not include either cannabis-infused products or cannabis concentrates.
xx. "Youth access" means the level of interest persons under the age of twenty-one may have in a vapor product, as well as the degree to which the product is available or appealing to such persons, and the likelihood of initiation, use, or addiction by adolescents and young adults.
[ 2022 c 16 § 51; 2020 c 133 § 2; 2020 c 80 § 43; prior: 2019 c 394 § 9; 2019 c 158 § 12; 2019 c 55 § 11; prior: 2018 c 132 § 2; prior: 2017 c 317 § 5; 2017 c 212 § 11; 2017 c 153 § 1; prior: 2015 2nd sp.s. c 4 § 901; 2015 c 70 § 4; 2014 c 192 § 1; prior: 2013 c 276 § 2; 2013 c 116 § 1; 2013 c 12 § 2; prior: 2013 c 3 § 2 (Initiative Measure No. 502, approved November 6, 2012); 2012 c 8 § 1; 2010 c 177 § 1; 2003 c 142 § 4; 1998 c 222 § 3; 1996 c 178 § 18; 1994 sp.s. c 9 § 739; 1993 c 187 § 1; prior: 1990 c 248 § 1; 1990 c 219 § 3; 1990 c 196 § 8; 1989 1st ex.s. c 9 § 429; 1987 c 144 § 2; 1986 c 124 § 1; 1984 c 153 § 18; 1980 c 71 § 2; 1973 2nd ex.s. c 38 § 1; 1971 ex.s. c 308 § 69.50.101; ]
Kits used, intended for use, or designed for use in planting, propagating, cultivating, growing, or harvesting of any species of plant which is a controlled substance or from which a controlled substance can be derived;
Kits used, intended for use, or designed for use in manufacturing, compounding, converting, producing, processing, or preparing controlled substances;
Isomerization devices used, intended for use, or designed for use in increasing the potency of any species of plant which is a controlled substance;
Testing equipment used, intended for use, or designed for use in identifying or in analyzing the strength, effectiveness, or purity of controlled substances;
Scales and balances used, intended for use, or designed for use in weighing or measuring controlled substances;
Diluents and adulterants, such as quinine hydrochloride, mannitol, mannite, dextrose, and lactose, used, intended for use, or designed for use in cutting controlled substances;
Separation gins and sifters used, intended for use, or designed for use in removing twigs and seeds from, or in otherwise cleaning or refining, cannabis;
Blenders, bowls, containers, spoons, and mixing devices used, intended for use, or designed for use in compounding controlled substances;
Capsules, balloons, envelopes, and other containers used, intended for use, or designed for use in packaging small quantities of controlled substances;
Containers and other objects used, intended for use, or designed for use in storing or concealing controlled substances;
Hypodermic syringes, needles, and other objects used, intended for use, or designed for use in parenterally injecting controlled substances into the human body;
Objects used, intended for use, or designed for use in ingesting, inhaling, or otherwise introducing cannabis, cocaine, hashish, or hashish oil into the human body, such as:
Metal, wooden, acrylic, glass, stone, plastic, or ceramic pipes with or without screens, permanent screens, hashish heads, or punctured metal bowls;
Water pipes;
Carburetion tubes and devices;
Smoking and carburetion masks;
Roach clips: Meaning objects used to hold burning material, such as a cannabis cigarette, that has become too small or too short to be held in the hand;
Miniature cocaine spoons, and cocaine vials;
Chamber pipes;
Carburetor pipes;
Electric pipes;
Air-driven pipes;
Chillums;
Bongs; and
Ice pipes or chillers.
Statements by an owner or by anyone in control of the object concerning its use;
Prior convictions, if any, of an owner, or of anyone in control of the object, under any state or federal law relating to any controlled substance;
The proximity of the object, in time and space, to a direct violation of this chapter;
The proximity of the object to controlled substances;
The existence of any residue of controlled substances on the object;
Direct or circumstantial evidence of the intent of an owner, or of anyone in control of the object, to deliver it to persons whom he or she knows, or should reasonably know, intend to use the object to facilitate a violation of this chapter; the innocence of an owner, or of anyone in control of the object, as to a direct violation of this chapter shall not prevent a finding that the object is intended or designed for use as drug paraphernalia;
Instructions, oral or written, provided with the object concerning its use;
Descriptive materials accompanying the object which explain or depict its use;
National and local advertising concerning its use;
The manner in which the object is displayed for sale;
Whether the owner, or anyone in control of the object, is a legitimate supplier of like or related items to the community, such as a licensed distributor or dealer of tobacco products;
Direct or circumstantial evidence of the ratio of sales of the object(s) to the total sales of the business enterprise;
The existence and scope of legitimate uses for the object in the community; and
Expert testimony concerning its use.
[ 2022 c 16 § 52; 2012 c 117 § 366; 1981 c 48 § 1; ]
In making a determination regarding a substance, the commission shall consider the following:
the actual or relative potential for abuse;
the scientific evidence of its pharmacological effect, if known;
the state of current scientific knowledge regarding the substance;
the history and current pattern of abuse;
the scope, duration, and significance of abuse;
the risk to the public health;
the potential of the substance to produce psychic or physiological dependence liability; and
whether the substance is an immediate precursor of a controlled substance.
The commission may consider findings of the federal Food and Drug Administration or the Drug Enforcement Administration as prima facie evidence relating to one or more of the determinative factors.
After considering the factors enumerated in subsection (a) of this section, the commission shall make findings with respect thereto and adopt and cause to be published a rule controlling the substance upon finding the substance has a potential for abuse.
The commission, without regard to the findings required by subsection (a) of this section or RCW 69.50.203, 69.50.205, 69.50.207, 69.50.209, and 69.50.211 or the procedures prescribed by subsections (a) and (b) of this section, may place an immediate precursor in the same schedule in which the controlled substance of which it is an immediate precursor is placed or in any other schedule. If the commission designates a substance as an immediate precursor, substances that are precursors of the controlled precursor are not subject to control solely because they are precursors of the controlled precursor.
If a substance is designated, rescheduled, or deleted as a controlled substance under federal law, the commission shall similarly control the substance under this chapter after the expiration of thirty days from the date of publication in the federal register of a final order designating the substance as a controlled substance or rescheduling or deleting the substance or from the date of issuance of an order of temporary scheduling under Section 508 of the federal Dangerous Drug Diversion Control Act of 1984, 21 U.S.C. Sec. 811(h), unless within that thirty-day period, the commission or an interested party objects to inclusion, rescheduling, temporary scheduling, or deletion. If no objection is made, the commission shall adopt and cause to be published, without the necessity of making determinations or findings as required by subsection (a) of this section or RCW 69.50.203, 69.50.205, 69.50.207, 69.50.209, and 69.50.211, a final rule, for which notice of proposed rule making is omitted, designating, rescheduling, temporarily scheduling, or deleting the substance. If an objection is made, the commission shall make a determination with respect to the designation, rescheduling, or deletion of the substance as provided by subsection (a) of this section. Upon receipt of an objection to inclusion, rescheduling, or deletion under this chapter by the commission, the commission shall publish notice of the receipt of the objection, and control under this chapter is stayed until the commission adopts a rule as provided by subsection (a) of this section.
The commission, by rule and without regard to the requirements of subsection (a) of this section, may schedule a substance in Schedule I regardless of whether the substance is substantially similar to a controlled substance in Schedule I or II if the commission finds that scheduling of the substance on an emergency basis is necessary to avoid an imminent hazard to the public safety and the substance is not included in any other schedule or no exemption or approval is in effect for the substance under Section 505 of the federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, 21 U.S.C. Sec. 355. Upon receipt of notice under RCW 69.50.214, the commission shall initiate scheduling of the controlled substance analog on an emergency basis pursuant to this subsection. The scheduling of a substance under this subsection expires one year after the adoption of the scheduling rule. With respect to the finding of an imminent hazard to the public safety, the commission shall consider whether the substance has been scheduled on a temporary basis under federal law or factors set forth in subsection (a)(1)(iv), (v), and (vi) of this section, and may also consider clandestine importation, manufacture, or distribution, and, if available, information concerning the other factors set forth in subsection (a)(1) of this section. A rule may not be adopted under this subsection until the commission initiates a rule-making proceeding under subsection (a) of this section with respect to the substance. A rule adopted under this subsection must be vacated upon the conclusion of the rule-making proceeding initiated under subsection (a) of this section with respect to the substance.
Authority to control under this section does not extend to distilled spirits, wine, malt beverages, or tobacco as those terms are defined or used in Titles 66 and 26 RCW.
[ 2013 c 19 § 87; 1998 c 245 § 108; 1993 c 187 § 2; 1989 1st ex.s. c 9 § 430; 1986 c 124 § 2; 1971 ex.s. c 308 § 69.50.201; ]
The controlled substances listed or to be listed in the schedules in RCW 69.50.204, 69.50.206, 69.50.208, 69.50.210, and 69.50.212 are included by whatever official, common, usual, chemical, or trade name designated.
[ 1971 ex.s. c 308 § 69.50.202; ]
has high potential for abuse;
has no currently accepted medical use in treatment in the United States; and
lacks accepted safety for use in treatment under medical supervision.
[ 2013 c 19 § 88; 1993 c 187 § 3; 1971 ex.s. c 308 § 69.50.203; ]
Unless specifically excepted by state or federal law or regulation or more specifically included in another schedule, the following controlled substances are listed in Schedule I:
Acetyl-alpha-methylfentanyl (N-[1-(1-methyl-2-phenethyl)-4-piperidinyl]-N-phenylacetamide);
Acetylmethadol;
Allylprodine;
Alphacetylmethadol, except levo-alphacetylmethadol, also known as levo-alpha-acetylmethadol, levomethadyl acetate, or LAAM;
Alphameprodine;
Alphamethadol;
Alpha-methylfentanyl (N-[1-(alpha-methyl-beta-phenyl) ethyl-4-piperidyl] propionanilide); (1-(1-methyl-2-phenylethyl)-4-(N-propanilido) piperidine);
Alpha-methylthiofentanyl (N-[1-methyl-2-(2-thienyl)ethyl-4-piperidinyl]-N-phenylpropanamide);
Benzethidine;
Betacetylmethadol;
Beta-hydroxyfentanyl (N-[1-(2-hydroxy-2-phenethyl)-4-piperidinyl]-N-phenylpropanamide);
Beta-hydroxy-3-methylfentanyl, some trade or other names: N-[1-(2-hydrox-2-phenethyl)-3-methyl-4-piperidinyl]-N-phenylpropanamide;
Betameprodine;
Betamethadol;
Betaprodine;
Clonitazene;
Dextromoramide;
Diampromide;
Diethylthiambutene;
Difenoxin;
Dimenoxadol;
Dimepheptanol;
Dimethylthiambutene;
Dioxaphetyl butyrate;
Dipipanone;
Ethylmethylthiambutene;
Etonitazene;
Etoxeridine;
Furethidine;
Hydroxypethidine;
Ketobemidone;
Levomoramide;
Levophenacylmorphan;
3-Methylfentanyl (N-[3-methyl-1-(2-phenylethyl)-4-piperidyl]-N-phenylprop anamide);
3-Methylthiofentanyl (N-[(3-methyl-1-(2-thienyl)ethyl-4-piperidinyl]-N-phenylpropanamide);
Morpheridine;
MPPP (1-methyl-4-phenyl-4-propionoxypiperidine);
Noracymethadol;
Norlevorphanol;
Normethadone;
Norpipanone;
Para-fluorofentanyl (N-(4-fluorophenyl)-N-[1-(2-phenethyl)-4-piperidinyl] propanamide);
PEPAP(1-(-2-phenethyl)-4-phenyl-4-acetoxypiperidine);
Phenadoxone;
Phenampromide;
Phenomorphan;
Phenoperidine;
Piritramide;
Proheptazine;
Properidine;
Propiram;
Racemoramide;
Thiofentanyl (N-phenyl-N-[1-(2-thienyl)ethyl-4-piperidinyl]- propanamide);
Tilidine;
Trimeperidine.
Acetorphine;
Acetyldihydrocodeine;
Benzylmorphine;
Codeine methylbromide;
Codeine-N-Oxide;
Cyprenorphine;
Desomorphine;
Dihydromorphine;
Drotebanol;
Etorphine, except hydrochloride salt;
Heroin;
Hydromorphinol;
Methyldesorphine;
Methyldihydromorphine;
Morphine methylbromide;
Morphine methylsulfonate;
Morphine-N-Oxide;
Myrophine;
Nicocodeine;
Nicomorphine;
Normorphine;
Pholcodine;
Thebacon.
Alpha-ethyltryptamine: Some trade or other names: Etryptamine; monase; a-ethyl-1H-indole-3-ethanamine; 3-(2-aminobutyl) indole; a-ET; and AET;
4-bromo-2,5-dimethoxy-amphetamine: Some trade or other names: 4-bromo-2,5-dimethoxy-a-methylphenethylamine; 4-bromo-2,5-DMA;
4-bromo-2,5-dimethoxyphenethylamine: Some trade or other names: 2-(4-bromo-2,5-dimethoxyphenyl)-1-aminoethane; alpha-desmethyl DOB; 2C-B, nexus;
2,5-dimethoxyamphetamine: Some trade or other names: 2,5-dimethoxy-a-methylphenethylamine; 2,5-DMA;
2,5-dimethoxy-4-ethylamphetamine (DOET);
2,5-dimethoxy-4-(n)-propylthiophenethylamine: Other name: 2C-T-7;
4-methoxyamphetamine: Some trade or other names: 4-methoxy-a-methylphenethylamine; paramethoxyamphetamine, PMA;
5-methoxy-3,4-methylenedioxy-amphetamine;
4-methyl-2,5-dimethoxy-amphetamine: Some trade and other names: 4-methyl-2,5-dimethoxy-a-methylphenethylamine; "DOM"; and "STP";
3,4-methylenedioxy amphetamine;
3,4-methylenedioxymethamphetamine (MDMA);
3,4-methylenedioxy-N-ethylamphetamine, also known as N-ethyl-alpha-methyl-3,4(methylenedioxy)phenethylamine, N-ethyl MDA, MDE, MDEA;
N-hydroxy-3,4-methylenedioxyamphetamine also known as N-hydroxy-alpha-methyl-3,4(methylenedioxy)phenethylamine,N-hydroxy MDA;
3,4,5-trimethoxy amphetamine;
Alpha-methyltryptamine: Other name: AMT;
Bufotenine: Some trade or other names: 3-(beta-Dimethylaminoethyl)-5-hydroxindole; 3-(2-dimethylaminoethyl)-5-indolol; N, N-dimethylserotonin; 5-hydroxy-N,N-dimethyltryptamine; mappine;
Cannabis;
Diethyltryptamine: Some trade or other names: N,N-Diethyltryptamine; DET;
Dimethyltryptamine: Some trade or other names: DMT;
5-methoxy-N,N-diisopropyltryptamine: Other name: 5-MeO-DIPT;
Ibogaine: Some trade or other names: 7-Ethyl-6,6 beta,7,8,9,10,12,13,-octahydro-2-methoxy-6,9-methano-5H-pyndo (1',2' 1,2) azepino (5,4-b) indole; Tabernanthe iboga;
Lysergic acid diethylamide;
Mescaline;
Parahexyl-7374: Some trade or other names: 3-Hexyl-1-hydroxy-7, 8, 9, 10-tetrahydro-6, 6, 9-trimethyl-6H-dibenzo[b,d]pyran; synhexyl;
Peyote, meaning all parts of the plant presently classified botanically as Lophophora Williamsii Lemaire, whether growing or not, the seeds thereof, any extract from any part of such plant, and every compound, manufacture, salts, derivative, mixture, or preparation of such plant, its seeds, or extracts; (interprets 21 U.S.C. Sec. 812 (c), Schedule I (c)(12));
N-ethyl-3-piperidyl benzilate;
N-methyl-3-piperidyl benzilate;
Psilocybin;
Psilocyn;
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Tetrahydrocannabinols, meaning tetrahydrocannabinols naturally contained in a plant of the genera Cannabis, as well as synthetic equivalents of the substances contained in the plant, or in the resinous extractives of the genera Cannabis, and/or synthetic substances, derivatives, and their isomers with similar chemical structure and pharmacological activity such as the following:
1 - cis - or trans tetrahydrocannabinol, and their optical isomers, excluding tetrahydrocannabinol in sesame oil and encapsulated in a soft gelatin capsule in a drug product approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration;
6 - cis - or trans tetrahydrocannabinol, and their optical isomers;
3,4 - cis - or trans tetrahydrocannabinol, and its optical isomers; or
That is chemically synthesized and either:
I. Has been demonstrated to have binding activity at one or more cannabinoid receptors; or
(Since nomenclature of these substances is not internationally standardized, compounds of these structures, regardless of numerical designation of atomic positions covered.)
ii. Hemp and industrial hemp, as defined in RCW 15.140.020, are excepted from the categories of controlled substances identified under this section;
Ethylamine analog of phencyclidine: Some trade or other names: N-ethyl-1phenylcyclohexalymine, (1-phenylcyclohexl) ethylamine; N-(1-phenylcyclohexyl)ethylamine; cyclohexamine; PCE;
Pyrrolidine analog of phencyclidine: Some trade or other names: 1-(1-phencyclohexyl)pyrrolidine; PCPy; PHP;
Thiophene analog of phencyclidine: Some trade or other names: 1-(1-[2-thenyl]-cyclohexly)-pipendine; 2-thienylanalog of phencyclidine; TPCP; TCP;
1-[1-(2-thienyl)cyclohexyl]pyrrolidine: A trade or other name is TCPy.
Gamma-hydroxybutyric acid: Some other names include GHB; gamma-hydroxybutyrate; 4-hydroxybutyrate; 4-hydroxybutanoic acid; sodium oxybate; sodium oxybutyrate;
Mecloqualone;
Methaqualone.
Aminorex: Some other names: aminoxaphen; 2-amino-5-phenyl-2-oxazoline; or 4, 5-dihydro-5-phenly-2-oxazolamine;
N-Benzylpiperazine: Some other names: BZP,1-benzylpiperazine;
Cathinone, also known as 2-amino-1-phenyl-1-propanone, alpha-aminopropiophenone, 2-aminopropiophenone and norephedrone;
Fenethylline;
Methcathinone: Some other names: 2-(methylamino)-propiophenone; alpha-(methylamino)propiophenone; 2-(methylamino)-1-phenylpropan-1-one; alpha-N-methylaminopropiophenone; monomethylpropion; ephedrone; N-methylcathinone; methylcathinone; AL-464; AL-422; AL-463 and UR1432, its salts, optical isomers, and salts of optical isomers;
(+-)cis-4-methylaminorex ((+-)cis-4,5-dihydro-4-methyl-5-phenyl-2-oxazolamine);
N-ethylamphetamine;
N,N-dimethylamphetamine: Some trade or other names: N,N-alpha-trimethyl-benzeneethanamine; N,N-alpha-trimethylphenoethylene.
The controlled substances in this section may be added, rescheduled, or deleted as provided for in RCW 69.50.201.
[ 2022 c 16 § 53; 2019 c 158 § 13; 2015 2nd sp.s. c 4 § 1203; 2010 c 177 § 2; 1993 c 187 § 4; 1986 c 124 § 3; 1980 c 138 § 1; 1971 ex.s. c 308 § 69.50.204; ]
the substance has high potential for abuse;
the substance has currently accepted medical use in treatment in the United States, or currently accepted medical use with severe restrictions; and
the abuse of the substance may lead to severe psychological or physical dependence.
[ 2013 c 19 § 89; 1993 c 187 § 5; 1971 ex.s. c 308 § 69.50.205; ]
The drugs and other substances listed in this section, by whatever official name, common or usual name, chemical name, or brand name designated, are included in Schedule II.
Opium and opiate, and any salt, compound, derivative, or preparation of opium or opiate, excluding apomorphine, thebaine-derived butorphanol, dextrorphan, nalbuphine, nalmefene, naloxone, and naltrexone, and their respective salts, but including the following:
Raw opium;
Opium extracts;
Opium fluid;
Powdered opium;
Granulated opium;
Tincture of opium;
Codeine;
Dihydroetorphine;
Ethylmorphine;
Etorphine hydrochloride;
Hydrocodone;
Hydromorphone;
Metopon;
Morphine;
Oripavine;
Oxycodone;
Oxymorphone; and
Thebaine.
Any salt, compound, isomer, derivative, or preparation thereof that is chemically equivalent or identical with any of the substances referred to in subsection (b)(1) of this section, but not including the isoquinoline alkaloids of opium.
Opium poppy and poppy straw.
Coca leaves and any salt, compound, derivative, or preparation of coca leaves including cocaine and ecgonine, and their salts, isomers, derivatives, and salts of isomers and derivatives, and any salt, compound, derivative, or preparation thereof which is chemically equivalent or identical with any of these substances, except that the substances shall not include decocainized coca leaves or extractions of coca leaves which do not contain cocaine or ecgonine.
Concentrate of poppy straw (The crude extract of poppy straw in either liquid, solid, or powder form which contains the phenanthrene alkaloids of the opium poppy.)
Alfentanil;
Alphaprodine;
Anileridine;
Bezitramide;
Bulk dextropropoxyphene (nondosage forms);
Carfentanil;
Dihydrocodeine;
Diphenoxylate;
Fentanyl;
Isomethadone;
Levo-alphacetylmethadol, also known as levo-alpha-acetylmethadol, levomethadyl acetate, or LAAM;
Levomethorphan;
Levorphanol;
Metazocine;
Methadone;
Methadone—Intermediate, 4-cyano-2-dimethylamino-4, 4-diphenyl butane;
Moramide—Intermediate, 2-methyl-3-morpholino-1, 1-diphenylpropane-carboxylic acid;
Pethidine (meperidine);
Pethidine—Intermediate-A, 4-cyano-1-methyl-4-phenylpiperidine;
Pethidine—Intermediate-B, ethyl-4-phenylpiperidine-4-carboxylate;
Pethidine-Intermediate-C, 1-methyl-4-phenylpiperidine-4-carboxylic acid;
Phenazocine;
Piminodine;
Racemethorphan;
Racemorphan;
Remifentanil;
Sufentanil;
Tapentadol.
Amphetamine, its salts, optical isomers, and salts of its optical isomers;
Methamphetamine, its salts, isomers, and salts of its isomers;
Phenmetrazine and its salts;
Methylphenidate;
Lisdexamfetamine, its salts, isomers, and salts of its isomers.
Amobarbital;
Glutethimide;
Pentobarbital;
Phencyclidine;
Secobarbital.
Nabilone: Some trade or other names are ( ± )-trans3-(1,1-dimethlheptyl)-6,6a,7,8,10,10a-hexahydro-1-hydroxy-6,6-dimethyl-9H-dibenzol[b,d]pyran-9-one.
Immediate precursor to amphetamine and methamphetamine:
Immediate precursors to phencyclidine (PCP):
1-phenylcyclohexylamine;
The controlled substances in this section may be added, rescheduled, or deleted as provided for in RCW 69.50.201.
[ 2010 c 177 § 3; 1993 c 187 § 6; 1986 c 124 § 4; 1980 c 138 § 2; 1971 ex.s. c 308 § 69.50.206; ]
the substance has a potential for abuse less than the substances included in Schedules I and II;
the substance has currently accepted medical use in treatment in the United States; and
abuse of the substance may lead to moderate or low physical dependence or high psychological dependence.
[ 2013 c 19 § 90; 1993 c 187 § 7; 1971 ex.s. c 308 § 69.50.207; ]
Unless specifically excepted by state or federal law or regulation or more specifically included in another schedule, the following controlled substances are listed in Schedule III:
Any compound, mixture, or preparation in dosage unit form containing any stimulant substance included in Schedule II and which was listed as an excepted compound on August 25, 1971, pursuant to the federal Controlled Substances Act, and any other drug of the quantitative composition shown in that list for those drugs or which is the same except for containing a lesser quantity of controlled substances;
Benzphetamine;
Chlorphentermine;
Clortermine;
Phendimetrazine.
Any compound, mixture, or preparation containing:
Amobarbital;
Secobarbital;
Pentobarbital;
or any salt thereof and one or more other active medicinal ingredients which are not listed in any schedule;
Any suppository dosage form containing:
Amobarbital;
Secobarbital;
Pentobarbital;
or any salt of any of these drugs and approved by the Food and Drug Administration for marketing only as a suppository;
Any substance which contains any quantity of a derivative of barbituric acid, or any salt of a derivative of barbituric acid;
Chlorhexadol;
Embutramide;
Any drug product containing gamma hydroxybutyric acid, including its salts, isomers, and salts of isomers, for which an application is approved under section 505 of the federal food, drug, and cosmetic act;
Ketamine, its salts, isomers, and salts of isomers, some other names for ketamine: (<plus-minus˃)-2-(2-chlorophenyl)-2-(methylamino)-cyclohexanone;
Lysergic acid;
Lysergic acid amide;
Methyprylon;
Sulfondiethylmethane;
Sulfonethylmethane;
Sulfonmethane;
Tiletamine and zolazepam or any of their salts—some trade or other names for a tiletamine-zolazepam combination product: Telazol, some trade or other names for tiletamine: 2-(ethylamino)-2-(2-thienyl) cyclohexanone, some trade or other names for zolazepam: 4-(2-fluorophenyl)-6,8-dihydro-1,3,8-trimethylpyrazolo-[3,4-e][1,4]-diazepin-7(1H)-one flupyrazapon.
Nalorphine.
Narcotic drugs. Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or preparation containing limited quantities of any of the following narcotic drugs, or any salts thereof calculated as the free anhydrous base or alkaloid, in limited quantities as set forth in this subsection:
Not more than 1.8 grams of codeine per 100 milliliters or not more than 90 milligrams per dosage unit, with an equal or greater quantity of an isoquinoline alkaloid of opium;
Not more than 1.8 grams of codeine per 100 milliliters or not more than 90 milligrams per dosage unit, with one or more active, nonnarcotic ingredients in recognized therapeutic amounts;
Not more than 300 milligrams of dihydrocodeinone (hydrocodone) per 100 milliliters or not more than 15 milligrams per dosage unit, with a fourfold or greater quantity of an isoquinoline alkaloid of opium;
Not more than 300 milligrams of dihydrocodeinone (hydrocodone) per 100 milliliters or not more than 15 milligrams per dosage unit, with one or more active, nonnarcotic ingredients in recognized therapeutic amounts;
Not more than 1.8 grams of dihydrocodeine per 100 milliliters or not more than 90 milligrams per dosage unit, with one or more active, nonnarcotic ingredients in recognized therapeutic amounts;
Not more than 300 milligrams of ethylmorphine per 100 milliliters or not more than 15 milligrams per dosage unit, with one or more active, nonnarcotic ingredients in recognized therapeutic amounts;
Not more than 500 milligrams of opium per 100 milliliters or per 100 grams, or not more than 25 milligrams per dosage unit, with one or more active, nonnarcotic ingredients in recognized therapeutic amounts; and
Not more than 50 milligrams of morphine per 100 milliliters or per 100 grams with one or more active, nonnarcotic ingredients in recognized therapeutic amounts.
Any material, compound, mixture, or preparation containing any of the following narcotic drugs or their salts: Buprenorphine.
Hallucinogenic substances. Dronabinol (synthetic) in sesame oil and encapsulated in a soft gelatin capsule in a United States food and drug administration approved product. Some other names for dronabinol: [6a R-trans]-6a,7,8, 10a-tetrahydro-6,6,9-trimethyl-3-pentyl-6H-dibenzo[b,d] pyran-i-ol, or (-)-delta-9-(trans)-tetrahydrocannabinol.
Anabolic steroids. The term "anabolic steroids" means any drug or hormonal substance, chemically and pharmacologically related to testosterone, other than estrogens, progestins, corticosteroids, and dehydroepiandrosterone, that promotes muscle growth and includes:
3β,17-dihydroxy-5a-androstane;
3α,17β-dihydroxy-5a-androstane;
5α-androstan-3,17-dione;
1-androstenediol (3β,17β-dihydroxy-5α-androst-1-ene);
1-androstenediol (3α,17β-dihydroxy-5α-androst-1-ene);
4-androstenediol (3β,17β-dihydroxy-androst-4-ene);
5-androstenediol (3β,17β-dihydroxy-androst-5-ene);
1-androstenedione ([5α]-androst-1-en-3,17-dione);
4-androstenedione (androst-4-en-3,17-dione);
5-androstenedione (androst-5-en-3,17-dione);
Bolasterone (7α,17α-dimethyl-17β-hydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one);
Boldenone (17β-hydroxyandrost-1,4,-diene-3-one);
Calusterone (7β,17α-dimethyl-17β-hydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one);
Clostebol (4-chloro-17β-hydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one);
Dehydrochloromethyltestosterone (4-chloro-17β-hydroxy-17α-methyl-androst-1,4-dien-3-one);
Δ1-dihydrotestosterone (a.k.a. '1-testosterone') (17β-hydroxy-5α-androst-1-en-3-one);
4-dihydrotestosterone (17β-hydroxy-androstan-3-one);
Drostanolone (17β-hydroxy-2α-methyl-5α-androstan-3-one);
Ethylestrenol (17α-ethyl-17β-hydroxyestr-4-ene);
Fluoxymesterone (9-fluoro-17α-methyl-11β,17β-dihydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one);
Formebolone (2-formyl-17α-methyl-11α,17β-dihydroxyandrost-1,4-dien-3-one);
Furazabol (17α-methyl-17β-hydroxyandrostano[2,3-c]-furazan);
13β-ethyl-17β-hydroxygon-4-en-3-one;
4-hydroxytestosterone (4,17β-dihydroxy-androst-4-en-3-one);
4-hydroxy-19-nortestosterone (4,17β-dihydroxy-estr-4-en-3-one);
Mestanolone (17α-methyl-17β-hydroxy-5-androstan-3-one);
Mesterolone (1α methyl-17β-hydroxy-[5α]-androstan-3-one);
Methandienone (17α-methyl-17β-hydroxyandrost-1,4-dien-3-one);
Methandriol (17α-methyl-3β,17β-dihydroxyandrost-5-ene);
Methenolone (1-methyl-17β-hydroxy-5α-androst-1-en-3-one);
17α-methyl-3β,17β-dihydroxy-5a-androstane;
17α-methyl-3α,17β-dihydroxy-5a-androstane;
17α-methyl-3β,17β-dihydroxyandrost-4-ene;
17α-methyl-4-hydroxynandrolone (17α-methyl-4-hydroxy-17β-hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one);
Methyldienolone (17α-methyl-17β-hydroxyestra-4,9(10)-dien-3-one);
Methyltrienolone (17α-methyl-17β-hydroxyestra-4,9-11-trien-3-one);
Methyltestosterone (17α-methyl-17β-hydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one);
Mibolerone (7α,17α-dimethyl-17β-hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one);
17α-methyl-Δ1-dihydrotestosterone (17bβ-hydroxy-17α-methyl-5α-androst-1-en-3-one) (also known as '17-α-methyl-1-testosterone');
Nandrolone (17β-hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one);
19-nor-4-androstenediol (3β, 17β-dihydroxyestr-4-ene);
19-nor-4-androstenediol (3α, 17β-dihydroxyestr-4-ene);
19-nor-5-androstenediol (3β, 17β-dihydroxyestr-5-ene);
19-nor-5-androstenediol (3α, 17β-dihydroxyestr-5-ene);
19-nor-4-androstenedione (estr-4-en-3,17-dione);
19-nor-5-androstenedione (estr-5-en-3,17-dione);
Norbolethone (13β, 17α-diethyl-17β-hydroxygon-4-en-3-one);
Norclostebol (4-chloro-17β-hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one);
Norethandrolone (17α-ethyl-17β-hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one);
Normethandrolone (17α-methyl-17β-hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one);
Oxandrolone (17α-methyl-17β-hydroxy-2-oxa-[5α]-androstan-3-one);
Oxymesterone (17α-methyl-4,17β-dihydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one);
Oxymetholone (17α-methyl-2-hydroxymethylene-17β-hydroxy-[5α]-androstan-3-one);
Stanozolol (17α-methyl-17β-hydroxy-[5α]-androst-2-eno[3,2-c]-pyrazole);
Stenbolone (17β-hydroxy-2-methyl-[5α]-androst-1-en-3-one);
Testolactone (13-hydroxy-3-oxo-13,17-secoandrosta-1,4-dien-17-oic acid lactone);
Testosterone (17β-hydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one);
Tetrahydrogestrinone (13β, 17α-diethyl-17β-hydroxygon-4,9,11-trien-3-one);
Trenbolone (17β-hydroxyestr-4,9,11-trien-3-one); and
Any salt, ester, or ether of a drug or substance described in this section. Such term does not include an anabolic steroid that is expressly intended for administration through implants to cattle or other nonhuman species and that has been approved by the secretary of the department of health and human services for such administration. If any person prescribes, dispenses, or distributes such steroid for human use, the person shall be considered to have prescribed, dispensed, or distributed an anabolic steroid within the meaning of this section.
The commission may except by rule any compound, mixture, or preparation containing any stimulant or depressant substance listed in subsection (a)(1) and (2) of this section from the application of all or any part of this chapter if the compound, mixture, or preparation contains one or more active medicinal ingredients not having a stimulant or depressant effect on the central nervous system, and if the admixtures are in combinations, quantity, proportion, or concentration that vitiate the potential for abuse of the substances having a stimulant or depressant effect on the central nervous system.
The controlled substances listed in this section may be added, rescheduled, or deleted as provided for in RCW 69.50.201.
[ 2013 c 19 § 91; 2010 c 177 § 4; 1993 c 187 § 8; 1986 c 124 § 5; 1980 c 138 § 3; 1971 ex.s. c 308 § 69.50.208; ]
the substance has a low potential for abuse relative to substances in Schedule III;
the substance has currently accepted medical use in treatment in the United States; and
abuse of the substance may lead to limited physical dependence or psychological dependence relative to the substances included in Schedule III.
[ 2013 c 19 § 92; 1993 c 187 § 9; 1971 ex.s. c 308 § 69.50.209; ]
Unless specifically excepted by state or federal law or regulation or more specifically included in another schedule, the following controlled substances are listed in Schedule IV:
Not more than 1 milligram of difenoxin and not less than 25 micrograms of atropine sulfate per dosage unit.
Dextropropoxyphene (alpha-(+)-4-dimethylamino-1,2-diphenyl-3-methyl-2-propionoxybutane).
Alprazolam;
Barbital;
Bromazepam;
Camazepam;
Carisoprodol;
Chloral betaine;
Chloral hydrate;
Chlordiazepoxide;
Clobazam;
Clonazepam;
Clorazepate;
Clotiazepam;
Cloxazolam;
Delorazepam;
Diazepam;
Dichloralphenazone;
Estazolam;
Ethchlorvynol;
Ethinamate;
Ethyl loflazepate;
Fludiazepam;
Flunitrazepam;
Flurazepam;
Halazepam;
Haloxazolam;
Ketazolam;
Loprazolam;
Lorazepam;
Lormetazepam;
Mebutamate;
Medazepam;
Meprobamate;
Methohexital;
Methylphenobarbital (mephobarbital);
Midazolam;
Nimetazepam;
Nitrazepam;
Nordiazepam;
Oxazepam;
Oxazolam;
Paraldehyde;
Petrichloral;
Phenobarbital;
Pinazepam;
Prazepam;
Quazepam;
Temazepam;
Tetrazepam;
Triazolam;
Zaleplon;
Zolpidem; and
Zopiclone.
Fenfluramine. Any material, compound, mixture, or preparation containing any quantity of the following substance, including its salts, isomers, and salts of such isomers, whenever the existence of such salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible: Fenfluramine.
Stimulants. Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or preparation containing any quantity of the following substances having a stimulant effect on the central nervous system, including their salts, isomers, and salts of isomers:
Cathine((+)norpseudoephedrine);
Diethylpropion;
Fencamfamin;
Fenproporex;
Mazindol;
Mefenorex;
Modafinil;
Pemoline (including organometallic complexes and chelates thereof);
Phentermine;
Pipradrol;
Sibutramine;
SPA ((-)-1-dimethylamino-1, 2-dephenylethane).
Pentazocine;
Butorphanol, including its optical isomers.
The commission may except by rule any compound, mixture, or preparation containing any depressant substance listed in subsection (b) of this section from the application of all or any part of this chapter if the compound, mixture, or preparation contains one or more active medicinal ingredients not having a depressant effect on the central nervous system, and if the admixtures are in combinations, quantity, proportion, or concentration that vitiate the potential for abuse of the substances having a depressant effect on the central nervous system.
The controlled substances listed in this section may be added, rescheduled, or deleted as provided for in RCW 69.50.201.
[ 2013 c 19 § 93; 2010 c 177 § 5; 1993 c 187 § 10; 1986 c 124 § 6; 1981 c 147 § 2; 1980 c 138 § 4; 1971 ex.s. c 308 § 69.50.210; ]
the substance has low potential for abuse relative to the controlled substances included in Schedule IV;
the substance has currently accepted medical use in treatment in the United States; and
abuse of the substance may lead to limited physical dependence or psychological dependence relative to the substances included in Schedule IV.
[ 2013 c 19 § 94; 1993 c 187 § 11; 1971 ex.s. c 308 § 69.50.211; ]
Unless specifically excepted by state or federal law or regulation or more specifically included in another schedule, the following controlled substances are listed in Schedule V:
Not more than 200 milligrams of codeine per 100 milliliters or per 100 grams;
Not more than 100 milligrams of dihydrocodeine per 100 milliliters or per 100 grams;
Not more than 100 milligrams of ethylmorphine per 100 milliliters or per 100 grams;
Not more than 2.5 milligrams of diphenoxylate and not less than 25 micrograms of atropine sulfate per dosage unit;
Not more than 100 milligrams of opium per 100 milliliters or per 100 grams;
Not more than 0.5 milligrams of difenoxin and not less than 25 micrograms of atropine sulfate per dosage unit.
Stimulants. Unless specifically exempted or excluded or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or preparation which contains any quantity of the following substances having a stimulant effect on the central nervous system, including its salts, isomers, and salts of isomers: Pyrovalerone.
Depressants. Unless specifically exempted or excluded or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or preparation which contains any quantity of the following substances having a depressant effect on the central nervous system, including its salts:
Lacosamid, [(R)-2-acetoamido-N-benzyl-3-methoxy-propionamide];
Pregabalin{(S)-3-(aminomethyl)-5-methylhexanoic acid}.
The controlled substances listed in this section may be added, rescheduled, or deleted as provided for in RCW 69.50.201.
[ 2010 c 177 § 6; 1993 c 187 § 12; 1986 c 124 § 7; 1980 c 138 § 5; 1971 ex.s. c 308 § 69.50.212; ]
The commission shall publish updated schedules annually. Failure to publish updated schedules is not a defense in any administrative or judicial proceeding under this chapter.
[ 2013 c 19 § 95; 1993 c 187 § 13; 1971 ex.s. c 308 § 69.50.213; ]
A controlled substance analog, to the extent intended for human consumption, shall be treated, for the purposes of this chapter, as a substance included in Schedule I. Within thirty days after the initiation of prosecution with respect to a controlled substance analog by indictment or information, the prosecuting attorney shall notify the commission of information relevant to emergency scheduling as provided for in RCW 69.50.201(e). After final determination that the controlled substance analog should not be scheduled, no prosecution relating to that substance as a controlled substance analog may continue or take place.
[ 2013 c 19 § 96; 1993 c 187 § 14; ]
The commission may adopt rules and the department may charge reasonable fees, relating to the registration and control of the manufacture, distribution, and dispensing of controlled substances within this state.
[ 2013 c 19 § 97; 1993 c 187 § 15; 1991 c 229 § 9; 1989 1st ex.s. c 9 § 431; 1971 ex.s. c 308 § 69.50.301; ]
Every person who manufactures, distributes, or dispenses any controlled substance within this state or who proposes to engage in the manufacture, distribution, or dispensing of any controlled substance within this state, shall obtain annually a registration issued by the department in accordance with the commission's rules.
A person registered by the department under this chapter to manufacture, distribute, dispense, or conduct research with controlled substances may possess, manufacture, distribute, dispense, or conduct research with those substances to the extent authorized by the registration and in conformity with this Article.
The following persons need not register and may lawfully possess controlled substances under this chapter:
An agent or employee of any registered manufacturer, distributor, or dispenser of any controlled substance if the agent or employee is acting in the usual course of business or employment. This exemption shall not include any agent or employee distributing sample controlled substances to practitioners without an order;
A common or contract carrier or warehouse operator, or an employee thereof, whose possession of any controlled substance is in the usual course of business or employment;
An ultimate user or a person in possession of any controlled substance pursuant to a lawful order of a practitioner or in lawful possession of a substance included in Schedule V.
The commission may waive by rule the requirement for registration of certain manufacturers, distributors, or dispensers upon finding it consistent with the public health and safety. Personal practitioners licensed or registered in the state of Washington under the respective professional licensing acts shall not be required to be registered under this chapter unless the specific exemption is denied pursuant to RCW 69.50.305 for violation of any provisions of this chapter.
A separate registration is required at each principal place of business or professional practice where the applicant manufactures, distributes, or dispenses controlled substances.
The department may inspect the establishment of a registrant or applicant for registration in accordance with rules adopted by the commission.
[ 2013 c 19 § 98; 2011 c 336 § 839; 1993 c 187 § 16; 1989 1st ex.s. c 9 § 432; 1971 ex.s. c 308 § 69.50.302; ]
maintenance of effective controls against diversion of controlled substances into other than legitimate medical, scientific, research, or industrial channels;
compliance with applicable state and local law;
promotion of technical advances in the art of manufacturing controlled substances and the development of new substances;
any convictions of the applicant under any laws of another country or federal or state laws relating to any controlled substance;
past experience in the manufacture or distribution of controlled substances, and the existence in the applicant's establishment of effective controls against diversion of controlled substances into other than legitimate medical, scientific, research, or industrial channels;
furnishing by the applicant of false or fraudulent material in any application filed under this chapter;
suspension or revocation of the applicant's federal registration to manufacture, distribute, or dispense controlled substances as authorized by federal law; and
any other factors relevant to and consistent with the public health and safety.
Registration under subsection (a) of this section does not entitle a registrant to manufacture or distribute controlled substances included in Schedule I or II other than those specified in the registration.
Practitioners must be registered, or exempted under RCW 69.50.302(d), to dispense any controlled substances or to conduct research with controlled substances included in Schedules II through V if they are authorized to dispense or conduct research under the law of this state. The commission need not require separate registration under this Article for practitioners engaging in research with nonnarcotic substances included in Schedules II through V where the registrant is already registered under this Article in another capacity. Practitioners registered under federal law to conduct research with substances included in Schedule I may conduct research with substances included in Schedule I within this state upon furnishing the commission evidence of that federal registration.
A manufacturer or distributor registered under the federal Controlled Substances Act, 21 U.S.C. Sec. 801 et seq., may submit a copy of the federal application as an application for registration as a manufacturer or distributor under this section. The commission may require a manufacturer or distributor to submit information in addition to the application for registration under the federal act.
[ 2013 c 19 § 99; 1993 c 187 § 17; 1989 1st ex.s. c 9 § 433; 1971 ex.s. c 308 § 69.50.303; ]
furnished false or fraudulent material information in any application filed under this chapter;
been convicted of a felony under any state or federal law relating to any controlled substance;
had the registrant's federal registration suspended or revoked and is no longer authorized by federal law to manufacture, distribute, or dispense controlled substances; or
committed acts that would render registration under RCW 69.50.303 inconsistent with the public interest as determined under that section.
The commission may limit revocation or suspension of a registration to the particular controlled substance or schedule of controlled substances, with respect to which grounds for revocation or suspension exist.
If the commission suspends or revokes a registration, all controlled substances owned or possessed by the registrant at the time of suspension or the effective date of the revocation order may be placed under seal. No disposition may be made of substances under seal until the time for taking an appeal has elapsed or until all appeals have been concluded unless a court, upon application, orders the sale of perishable substances and the deposit of the proceeds of the sale with the court. Upon a revocation order becoming final, all controlled substances may be forfeited to the state.
The department may seize or place under seal any controlled substance owned or possessed by a registrant whose registration has expired or who has ceased to practice or do business in the manner contemplated by the registration. The controlled substance must be held for the benefit of the registrant or the registrant's successor in interest. The department shall notify a registrant, or the registrant's successor in interest, who has any controlled substance seized or placed under seal, of the procedures to be followed to secure the return of the controlled substance and the conditions under which it will be returned. The department may not dispose of any controlled substance seized or placed under seal under this subsection until the expiration of one hundred eighty days after the controlled substance was seized or placed under seal. The costs incurred by the department in seizing, placing under seal, maintaining custody, and disposing of any controlled substance under this subsection may be recovered from the registrant, any proceeds obtained from the disposition of the controlled substance, or from both. Any balance remaining after the costs have been recovered from the proceeds of any disposition must be delivered to the registrant or the registrant's successor in interest.
The department shall promptly notify the drug enforcement administration of all orders restricting, suspending, or revoking registration and all forfeitures of controlled substances.
[ 2013 c 19 § 100; 1993 c 187 § 18; 1989 1st ex.s. c 9 § 434; 1986 c 124 § 8; 1971 ex.s. c 308 § 69.50.304; ]
Any registration, or exemption from registration, issued pursuant to the provisions of this chapter shall not be denied, suspended, or revoked unless the commission denies, suspends, or revokes such registration, or exemption from registration, by proceedings consistent with the administrative procedure act, chapter 34.05 RCW.
[ 2013 c 19 § 101; 1971 ex.s. c 308 § 69.50.305; ]
Persons registered, or exempted from registration under RCW 69.50.302(d), to manufacture, distribute, dispense, or administer controlled substances under this chapter shall keep records and maintain inventories in conformance with the recordkeeping and inventory requirements of federal law and with any additional rules the commission issues.
[ 2013 c 19 § 102; 1971 ex.s. c 308 § 69.50.306; ]
A controlled substance may be dispensed only as provided in this section. Prescriptions electronically communicated must also meet the requirements under RCW 69.50.312.
Schedule II narcotic substances may be dispensed by a pharmacy pursuant to a facsimile prescription under the following circumstances:
The facsimile prescription is transmitted by a practitioner to the pharmacy; and
The facsimile prescription is for a patient in a long-term care facility or a hospice program; and
The practitioner or the practitioner's agent notes on the facsimile prescription that the patient is a long-term care or hospice patient.
Injectable Schedule II narcotic substances that are to be compounded for patient use may be dispensed by a pharmacy pursuant to a facsimile prescription if the facsimile prescription is transmitted by a practitioner to the pharmacy.
Under (1) and (2) of this subsection the facsimile prescription shall serve as the original prescription and shall be maintained as other Schedule II narcotic substances prescriptions.
In emergency situations, as defined by rule of the commission, a substance included in Schedule II may be dispensed upon oral prescription of a practitioner, reduced promptly to writing and filed by the pharmacy. Prescriptions shall be retained in conformity with the requirements of RCW 69.50.306.
A prescription for a substance included in Schedule II may not be refilled. A prescription for a substance included in Schedule II may not be filled more than six months after the date the prescription was issued.
Except when dispensed directly by a practitioner authorized to prescribe or administer a controlled substance, other than a pharmacy, to an ultimate user, a substance included in Schedule III, IV, or V, which is a prescription drug as determined under RCW 69.04.560, may not be dispensed without a written, oral, or electronically communicated prescription of a practitioner. Any oral prescription must be promptly reduced to writing.
A written, oral, or electronically communicated prescription for a substance included in Schedule III, IV, or V, which is a prescription drug as determined under RCW 69.04.560, for a resident in a long-term care facility or hospice program may be communicated to the pharmacy by an authorized agent of the prescriber. A registered nurse, pharmacist, or physician practicing in a long-term care facility or hospice program may act as the practitioner's agent for purposes of this section, without need for a written agency agreement.
The prescription for a substance included in Schedule III, IV, or V may not be filled or refilled more than six months after the date issued by the practitioner or be refilled more than five times, unless renewed by the practitioner.
A valid prescription or lawful order of a practitioner, in order to be effective in legalizing the possession of controlled substances, must be issued in good faith for a legitimate medical purpose by one authorized to prescribe the use of such controlled substance. An order purporting to be a prescription not in the course of professional treatment is not a valid prescription or lawful order of a practitioner within the meaning and intent of this chapter; and the person who knows or should know that the person is filling such an order, as well as the person issuing it, can be charged with a violation of this chapter.
A substance included in Schedule V must be distributed or dispensed only for a medical purpose.
A practitioner may dispense or deliver a controlled substance to or for an individual or animal only for medical treatment or authorized research in the ordinary course of that practitioner's profession. Medical treatment includes dispensing or administering a narcotic drug for pain, including intractable pain.
No administrative sanction, or civil or criminal liability, authorized or created by this chapter may be imposed on a pharmacist for action taken in reliance on a reasonable belief that an order purporting to be a prescription was issued by a practitioner in the usual course of professional treatment or in authorized research.
An individual practitioner may not dispense a substance included in Schedule II, III, or IV for that individual practitioner's personal use.
[(m)] For the purposes of this section, the terms "long-term care facility" and "hospice program" have the meaning[s] provided in RCW 18.64.011.
[ 2016 c 148 § 8; 2013 c 276 § 3; 2013 c 19 § 103; 2012 c 10 § 46; 2001 c 248 § 1; 1993 c 187 § 19; 1971 ex.s. c 308 § 69.50.308; ]
A person to whom or for whose use any controlled substance has been prescribed, sold, or dispensed by a practitioner, and the owner of any animal for which such controlled substance has been prescribed, sold, or dispensed may lawfully possess it only in the container in which it was delivered to him or her by the person selling or dispensing the same.
[ 2012 c 117 § 367; 1971 ex.s. c 308 § 69.50.309; ]
On and after September 21, 1977, a humane society and animal control agency may apply to the department for registration pursuant to the applicable provisions of this chapter for the sole purpose of being authorized to purchase, possess, and administer sodium pentobarbital to euthanize injured, sick, homeless, or unwanted domestic pets and animals. Any agency so registered shall not permit a person to administer sodium pentobarbital unless such person has demonstrated adequate knowledge of the potential hazards and proper techniques to be used in administering this drug.
The department may issue a limited registration to carry out the provisions of this section. The commission shall promulgate such rules as it deems necessary to insure strict compliance with the provisions of this section. The commission may suspend or revoke registration upon determination that the person administering sodium pentobarbital has not demonstrated adequate knowledge as herein provided. This authority is granted in addition to any other power to suspend or revoke registration as provided by law.
[ 2013 c 19 § 104; 1989 1st ex.s. c 9 § 435; 1977 ex.s. c 197 § 1; ]
Any licensed health care practitioner with prescription or dispensing authority shall, as a condition of licensure and as directed by the practitioner's disciplinary board, consent to the requirement, if imposed, of complying with a triplicate prescription form program as may be established by rule by the department of health.
[ 1989 1st ex.s. c 9 § 436; 1984 c 153 § 20; ]
Information concerning a prescription for a controlled substance included in Schedules II through V, or information concerning a refill authorization for a controlled substance included in Schedules III through V, must be electronically communicated to a pharmacy of the patient's choice pursuant to the provisions of this chapter if the electronically communicated prescription information complies with the following:
Electronically communicated prescription information must comply with all applicable statutes and rules regarding the form, content, recordkeeping, and processing of a prescription for a legend drug;
Prescription drug orders may be released only to the patient or the patient's authorized representative, the prescriber or other authorized practitioner then caring for the patient, or other persons specifically authorized by law to receive such information;
The pharmacist shall exercise professional judgment regarding the accuracy, validity, and authenticity of the prescription drug order received by way of electronic transmission, consistent with federal and state laws and rules and guidelines of the commission.
The following are exempt from subsection (1) of this section:
Prescriptions issued by veterinarians, as that practice is defined in RCW 18.92.010;
Prescriptions issued for a patient of a long-term care facility as defined in RCW 18.64.011, or a hospice program as defined in RCW 18.64.011;
When the electronic system used for the communication of prescription information is unavailable due to a temporary technological or electronic failure;
Prescriptions issued that are intended for prescription fulfillment and dispensing outside Washington state;
When the prescriber and pharmacist are employed by the same entity, or employed by entities under common ownership or control;
Prescriptions issued for a drug that the United States food and drug administration or the United States drug enforcement administration requires to contain certain elements that are not able to be accomplished electronically;
Any controlled substance prescription that requires compounding as defined in RCW 18.64.011;
Prescriptions issued for the dispensing of a nonpatient specific prescription under a standing order, approved protocol for drug therapy, collaborative drug therapy agreement, in response to a public health emergency, or other circumstances allowed by statute or rule where a practitioner may issue a nonpatient specific prescription;
Prescriptions issued under a drug research protocol;
Prescriptions issued by a practitioner with the capability of electronic communication of prescription information under this section, when the practitioner reasonably determines it is impractical for the patient to obtain the electronically communicated prescription in a timely manner, and such delay would adversely impact the patient's medical condition; or
Prescriptions issued by a prescriber who has received a waiver from the department.
The department must develop a waiver process for the requirements of subsection (1) of this section for practitioners due to economic hardship, technological limitations that are not reasonably in the control of the practitioner, or other exceptional circumstance demonstrated by the practitioner. The waiver must be limited to one year or less, or for any other specified time frame set by the department.
A pharmacist who receives a written, oral, or faxed prescription is not required to verify that the prescription properly meets any exemptions under this section. Pharmacists may continue to dispense and deliver medications from otherwise valid written, oral, or faxed prescriptions.
An individual who violates this section commits a civil violation. Disciplinary authorities may impose a fine of two hundred fifty dollars per violation, not to exceed five thousand dollars per calendar year. Fines imposed under this section must be allocated to the health professions account.
Systems used for the electronic communication of prescription information must:
Comply with federal laws and rules for electronically communicated prescriptions for controlled substances included in Schedules II through V, as required by Title 21 C.F.R. parts 1300, 1304, 1306, and 1311;
Meet the national council for prescription drug prescriber/pharmacist interface SCRIPT standard as determined by the department in rule;
Have adequate security and systems safeguards designed to prevent and detect unauthorized access, modification, or manipulation of these records;
Provide an explicit opportunity for practitioners to indicate their preference on whether a therapeutically equivalent generic drug may be substituted; and
Include the capability to input and track partial fills of a controlled substance prescription in accordance with RCW 18.64.265.
[ 2019 c 314 § 16; 2019 c 314 § 15; 2013 c 276 § 4; 2013 c 19 § 105; 1998 c 222 § 4; ]
A person acting in good faith who seeks medical assistance for someone experiencing a drug-related overdose shall not be charged or prosecuted for possession of a controlled substance pursuant to RCW 69.50.4013, or penalized under RCW 69.50.4014, if the evidence for the charge of possession of a controlled substance was obtained as a result of the person seeking medical assistance.
A person who experiences a drug-related overdose and is in need of medical assistance shall not be charged or prosecuted for possession of a controlled substance pursuant to RCW 69.50.4013, or penalized under RCW 69.50.4014, if the evidence for the charge of possession of a controlled substance was obtained as a result of the overdose and the need for medical assistance.
The protection in this section from prosecution for possession crimes under RCW 69.50.4013 shall not be grounds for suppression of evidence in other criminal charges.
[ 2015 c 205 § 4; 2010 c 9 § 2; ]
Any practitioner who writes the first prescription for an opioid during the course of treatment to any patient must, under professional rules, discuss the following with the patient:
The risks of opioids, including risk of dependence and overdose;
Pain management alternatives to opioids, including nonopioid pharmacological treatments, and nonpharmacological treatments available to the patient, at the discretion of the practitioner and based on the medical condition of the patient; and
A written copy of the warning language provided by the department under RCW 43.70.765.
If the patient is under eighteen years old or does not have the capacity to make a health care decision, the discussion required by subsection (1) of this section must include the patient's parent, guardian, or the person identified in RCW 7.70.065, unless otherwise provided by law.
The practitioner shall document completion of the requirements in subsection (1) of this section in the patient's health care record.
To fulfill the requirements of subsection (1) of this section, a practitioner may designate any individual who holds a credential issued by a disciplining authority under RCW 18.130.040 to conduct the discussion.
Violation of this section constitutes unprofessional conduct under chapter 18.130 RCW.
This section does not apply to:
Opioid prescriptions issued for the treatment of pain associated with terminal cancer or other terminal diseases, or for palliative, hospice, or other end-of-life care of where the practitioner determines the health, well-being, or care of the patient would be compromised by the requirements of this section and documents such basis for the determination in the patient's health care record; or
Administration of an opioid in an inpatient or outpatient treatment setting.
This section does not apply to practitioners licensed under chapter 18.92 RCW.
The department shall review this section by March 31, 2026, and report to the appropriate committees of the legislature on whether this section should be retained, repealed, or amended.
[ 2021 c 270 § 4; 2019 c 314 § 17; ]
The department of fish and wildlife may apply to the department of health for registration pursuant to the applicable provisions of this chapter to purchase, possess, and administer controlled substances for use in chemical capture programs. The department of fish and wildlife must not permit a person to administer controlled substances unless the person has demonstrated adequate knowledge of the potential hazards and proper techniques to be used in administering controlled substances.
The department of health may issue a limited registration to carry out the provisions of this section. The commission may adopt rules to ensure strict compliance with the provisions of this section. The commission, in consultation with the department of fish and wildlife, must by rule add or remove additional controlled substances for use in chemical capture programs. The commission shall suspend or revoke registration upon determination that the person administering controlled substances has not demonstrated adequate knowledge as required by this section. This authority is granted in addition to any other power to suspend or revoke registration as provided by law.
[ 2013 c 19 § 106; 2003 c 175 § 2; ]
There shall be a cannabis producer's license regulated by the board and subject to annual renewal. The licensee is authorized to produce: (a) Cannabis for sale at wholesale to cannabis processors and other cannabis producers; (b) immature plants or clones and seeds for sale to cooperatives as described under RCW 69.51A.250; and (c) immature plants or clones and seeds for sale to qualifying patients and designated providers as provided under RCW 69.51A.310. The production, possession, delivery, distribution, and sale of cannabis in accordance with the provisions of this chapter and the rules adopted to implement and enforce it, by a validly licensed cannabis producer, shall not be a criminal or civil offense under Washington state law. Every cannabis producer's license shall be issued in the name of the applicant, shall specify the location at which the cannabis producer intends to operate, which must be within the state of Washington, and the holder thereof shall not allow any other person to use the license. The application fee for a cannabis producer's license shall be two hundred fifty dollars. The annual fee for issuance and renewal of a cannabis producer's license shall be one thousand three hundred eighty-one dollars. A separate license shall be required for each location at which a cannabis producer intends to produce cannabis.
There shall be a cannabis processor's license to process, package, and label cannabis concentrates, useable cannabis, and cannabis-infused products for sale at wholesale to cannabis processors and cannabis retailers, regulated by the board and subject to annual renewal. The processing, packaging, possession, delivery, distribution, and sale of cannabis, useable cannabis, cannabis-infused products, and cannabis concentrates in accordance with the provisions of this chapter and chapter 69.51A RCW and the rules adopted to implement and enforce these chapters, by a validly licensed cannabis processor, shall not be a criminal or civil offense under Washington state law. Every cannabis processor's license shall be issued in the name of the applicant, shall specify the location at which the licensee intends to operate, which must be within the state of Washington, and the holder thereof shall not allow any other person to use the license. The application fee for a cannabis processor's license shall be two hundred fifty dollars. The annual fee for issuance and renewal of a cannabis processor's license shall be one thousand three hundred eighty-one dollars. A separate license shall be required for each location at which a cannabis processor intends to process cannabis.
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There shall be a cannabis retailer's license to sell cannabis concentrates, useable cannabis, and cannabis-infused products at retail in retail outlets, regulated by the board and subject to annual renewal. The possession, delivery, distribution, and sale of cannabis concentrates, useable cannabis, and cannabis-infused products in accordance with the provisions of this chapter and the rules adopted to implement and enforce it, by a validly licensed cannabis retailer, shall not be a criminal or civil offense under Washington state law. Every cannabis retailer's license shall be issued in the name of the applicant, shall specify the location of the retail outlet the licensee intends to operate, which must be within the state of Washington, and the holder thereof shall not allow any other person to use the license. The application fee for a cannabis retailer's license shall be two hundred fifty dollars. The annual fee for issuance and renewal of a cannabis retailer's license shall be one thousand three hundred eighty-one dollars. A separate license shall be required for each location at which a cannabis retailer intends to sell cannabis concentrates, useable cannabis, and cannabis-infused products.
An individual retail licensee and all other persons or entities with a financial or other ownership interest in the business operating under the license are limited, in the aggregate, to holding a collective total of not more than five retail cannabis licenses.
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A cannabis retailer's license is subject to forfeiture in accordance with rules adopted by the board pursuant to this section.
The board shall adopt rules to establish a license forfeiture process for a licensed cannabis retailer that is not fully operational and open to the public within a specified period from the date of license issuance, as established by the board, subject to the following restrictions:
No cannabis retailer's license may be subject to forfeiture within the first nine months of license issuance; and
The board must require license forfeiture on or before twenty-four calendar months of license issuance if a cannabis retailer is not fully operational and open to the public, unless the board determines that circumstances out of the licensee's control are preventing the licensee from becoming fully operational and that, in the board's discretion, the circumstances warrant extending the forfeiture period beyond twenty-four calendar months.
The board has discretion in adopting rules under this subsection (3)(c).
This subsection (3)(c) applies to cannabis retailer's licenses issued before and after July 23, 2017. However, no license of a cannabis retailer that otherwise meets the conditions for license forfeiture established pursuant to this subsection (3)(c) may be subject to forfeiture within the first nine calendar months of July 23, 2017.
The board may not require license forfeiture if the licensee has been incapable of opening a fully operational retail cannabis business due to actions by the city, town, or county with jurisdiction over the licensee that include any of the following:
The adoption of a ban or moratorium that prohibits the opening of a retail cannabis business; or
The adoption of an ordinance or regulation related to zoning, business licensing, land use, or other regulatory measure that has the effect of preventing a licensee from receiving an occupancy permit from the jurisdiction or which otherwise prevents a licensed cannabis retailer from becoming operational.
The board may issue cannabis retailer licenses pursuant to this chapter and RCW 69.50.335.
[ 2022 c 16 § 54; 2020 c 236 § 6; 2018 c 132 § 3; 2017 c 317 § 1; 2017 c 316 § 2; 2016 c 170 § 1; 2015 c 70 § 5; 2014 c 192 § 2; 2013 c 3 § 4 (Initiative Measure No. 502, approved November 6, 2012); ]
Licensed cannabis producers and licensed cannabis processors may use a CBD product as an additive for the purpose of enhancing the cannabidiol concentration of any product authorized for production, processing, and sale under this chapter. Except as otherwise provided in subsection (2) of this section, such CBD product additives must be lawfully produced by, or purchased from, a producer or processor licensed under this chapter.
Subject to the requirements set forth in (a) and (b) of this subsection, and for the purpose of enhancing the cannabidiol concentration of any product authorized for production, processing, or sale under this chapter, licensed cannabis producers and licensed cannabis processors may use a CBD product obtained from a source not licensed under this chapter, provided the CBD product:
Has a THC level of 0.3 percent or less on a dry weight basis; and
Has been tested for contaminants and toxins by a testing laboratory accredited under this chapter and in accordance with testing standards established under this chapter and the applicable administrative rules.
Subject to the requirements of this subsection (3), the board may enact rules necessary to implement the requirements of this section. Such rule making is limited to regulations pertaining to laboratory testing and product safety standards for those cannabidiol products used by licensed producers and processors in the manufacture of cannabis products marketed by licensed retailers under this chapter. The purpose of such rule making must be to ensure the safety and purity of cannabidiol products used by cannabis producers and processors licensed under this chapter and incorporated into products sold by licensed recreational cannabis retailers. This rule-making authority does not include the authority to enact rules regarding either the production or processing practices of the industrial hemp industry or any cannabidiol products that are sold or marketed outside of the regulatory framework established under this chapter.
[ 2022 c 16 § 55; 2018 c 132 § 1; ]
Except as provided in subsection (2) of this section, cannabis processors may incorporate in cannabis vapor products a characterizing flavor if the characterizing flavor is derived from botanical terpenes naturally occurring in the cannabis plant, regardless of source, and if the characterizing flavor mimics the terpene profile found in a cannabis plant. Characterizing flavors authorized under this section do not include any synthetic terpenes.
If the board determines a characterizing flavor otherwise authorized under this section may pose a risk to public health or youth access, the board may, by rule adopted under RCW 69.50.342, prohibit the use in cannabis vapor products of such a characterizing flavor.
[ 2022 c 16 § 56; 2020 c 133 § 4; ]
Neither a licensed cannabis producer nor a licensed cannabis processor shall have a direct or indirect financial interest in a licensed cannabis retailer.
[ 2022 c 16 § 57; 2013 c 3 § 5 (Initiative Measure No. 502, approved November 6, 2012); ]
For the purpose of considering any application for a license to produce, process, research, transport, or deliver cannabis, useable cannabis, cannabis concentrates, or cannabis-infused products subject to the regulations established under RCW 69.50.385, or sell cannabis, or for the renewal of a license to produce, process, research, transport, or deliver cannabis, useable cannabis, cannabis concentrates, or cannabis-infused products subject to the regulations established under RCW 69.50.385, or sell cannabis, the board must conduct a comprehensive, fair, and impartial evaluation of the applications timely received.
The board may cause an inspection of the premises to be made, and may inquire into all matters in connection with the construction and operation of the premises. For the purpose of reviewing any application for a license and for considering the denial, suspension, revocation, cancellation, or renewal or denial thereof, of any license, the board may consider any prior criminal arrests or convictions of the applicant, any public safety administrative violation history record with the board, and a criminal history record information check. The board may submit the criminal history record information check to the Washington state patrol and to the identification division of the federal bureau of investigation in order that these agencies may search their records for prior arrests and convictions of the individual or individuals who filled out the forms. The board must require fingerprinting of any applicant whose criminal history record information check is submitted to the federal bureau of investigation. The provisions of RCW 9.95.240 and of chapter 9.96A RCW do not apply to these cases. Subject to the provisions of this section, the board may, in its discretion, grant or deny the renewal or license applied for. Denial may be based on, without limitation, the existence of chronic illegal activity documented in objections submitted pursuant to subsections (7)(c) and (10) of this section. Authority to approve an uncontested or unopposed license may be granted by the board to any staff member the board designates in writing. Conditions for granting this authority must be adopted by rule.
No license of any kind may be issued to:
A person under the age of twenty-one years;
A person doing business as a sole proprietor who has not lawfully resided in the state for at least six months prior to applying to receive a license;
A partnership, employee cooperative, association, nonprofit corporation, or corporation unless formed under the laws of this state, and unless all of the members thereof are qualified to obtain a license as provided in this section; or
A person whose place of business is conducted by a manager or agent, unless the manager or agent possesses the same qualifications required of the licensee.
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The board may, in its discretion, subject to RCW 43.05.160, 69.50.563, 69.50.562, 69.50.334, and 69.50.342(3) suspend or cancel any license; and all protections of the licensee from criminal or civil sanctions under state law for producing, processing, researching, or selling cannabis, cannabis concentrates, useable cannabis, or cannabis-infused products thereunder must be suspended or terminated, as the case may be.
The board must immediately suspend the license of a person who has been certified pursuant to RCW 74.20A.320 by the department of social and health services as a person who is not in compliance with a support order. If the person has continued to meet all other requirements for reinstatement during the suspension, reissuance of the license is automatic upon the board's receipt of a release issued by the department of social and health services stating that the licensee is in compliance with the order.
The board may request the appointment of administrative law judges under chapter 34.12 RCW who shall have power to administer oaths, issue subpoenas for the attendance of witnesses and the production of papers, books, accounts, documents, and testimony, examine witnesses, receive testimony in any inquiry, investigation, hearing, or proceeding in any part of the state, and consider mitigating and aggravating circumstances in any case and deviate from any prescribed penalty, under rules the board may adopt.
Witnesses must be allowed fees and mileage each way to and from any inquiry, investigation, hearing, or proceeding at the rate authorized by RCW 34.05.446. Fees need not be paid in advance of appearance of witnesses to testify or to produce books, records, or other legal evidence.
In case of disobedience of any person to comply with the order of the board or a subpoena issued by the board, or any of its members, or administrative law judges, or on the refusal of a witness to testify to any matter regarding which he or she may be lawfully interrogated, the judge of the superior court of the county in which the person resides, on application of any member of the board or administrative law judge, compels obedience by contempt proceedings, as in the case of disobedience of the requirements of a subpoena issued from said court or a refusal to testify therein.
Upon receipt of notice of the suspension or cancellation of a license, the licensee must forthwith deliver up the license to the board. Where the license has been suspended only, the board must return the license to the licensee at the expiration or termination of the period of suspension. The board must notify all other licensees in the county where the subject licensee has its premises of the suspension or cancellation of the license; and no other licensee or employee of another licensee may allow or cause any cannabis, cannabis concentrates, useable cannabis, or cannabis-infused products to be delivered to or for any person at the premises of the subject licensee.
Every license issued under this chapter is subject to all conditions and restrictions imposed by this chapter or by rules adopted by the board to implement and enforce this chapter. All conditions and restrictions imposed by the board in the issuance of an individual license must be listed on the face of the individual license along with the trade name, address, and expiration date.
Every licensee must post and keep posted its license, or licenses, in a conspicuous place on the premises.
No licensee may employ any person under the age of twenty-one years.
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Before the board issues a new or renewed license to an applicant it must give notice of the application to the chief executive officer of the incorporated city or town, if the application is for a license within an incorporated city or town, or to the county legislative authority, if the application is for a license outside the boundaries of incorporated cities or towns, or to the tribal government if the application is for a license within Indian country, or to the port authority if the application for a license is located on property owned by a port authority.
The incorporated city or town through the official or employee selected by it, the county legislative authority or the official or employee selected by it, the tribal government, or port authority has the right to file with the board within twenty days after the date of transmittal of the notice for applications, or at least thirty days prior to the expiration date for renewals, written objections against the applicant or against the premises for which the new or renewed license is asked. The board may extend the time period for submitting written objections upon request from the authority notified by the board.
The written objections must include a statement of all facts upon which the objections are based, and in case written objections are filed, the city or town or county legislative authority may request, and the board may in its discretion hold, a hearing subject to the applicable provisions of Title 34 RCW. If the board makes an initial decision to deny a license or renewal based on the written objections of an incorporated city or town or county legislative authority, the applicant may request a hearing subject to the applicable provisions of Title 34 RCW. If a hearing is held at the request of the applicant, board representatives must present and defend the board's initial decision to deny a license or renewal.
Upon the granting of a license under this title the board must send written notification to the chief executive officer of the incorporated city or town in which the license is granted, or to the county legislative authority if the license is granted outside the boundaries of incorporated cities or towns.
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Except as provided in (b) through (e) of this subsection, the board may not issue a license for any premises within one thousand feet of the perimeter of the grounds of any elementary or secondary school, playground, recreation center or facility, child care center, public park, public transit center, or library, or any game arcade admission to which is not restricted to persons aged twenty-one years or older.
A city, county, or town may permit the licensing of premises within one thousand feet but not less than one hundred feet of the facilities described in (a) of this subsection, except elementary schools, secondary schools, and playgrounds, by enacting an ordinance authorizing such distance reduction, provided that such distance reduction will not negatively impact the jurisdiction's civil regulatory enforcement, criminal law enforcement interests, public safety, or public health.
A city, county, or town may permit the licensing of research premises allowed under RCW 69.50.372 within one thousand feet but not less than one hundred feet of the facilities described in (a) of this subsection by enacting an ordinance authorizing such distance reduction, provided that the ordinance will not negatively impact the jurisdiction's civil regulatory enforcement, criminal law enforcement, public safety, or public health.
The board may license premises located in compliance with the distance requirements set in an ordinance adopted under (b) or (c) of this subsection. Before issuing or renewing a research license for premises within one thousand feet but not less than one hundred feet of an elementary school, secondary school, or playground in compliance with an ordinance passed pursuant to (c) of this subsection, the board must ensure that the facility:
Meets a security standard exceeding that which applies to cannabis producer, processor, or retailer licensees;
Is inaccessible to the public and no part of the operation of the facility is in view of the general public; and
Bears no advertising or signage indicating that it is a cannabis research facility.
The board must issue a certificate of compliance if the premises met the requirements under (a), (b), (c), or (d) of this subsection on the date of the application. The certificate allows the licensee to operate the business at the proposed location notwithstanding a later occurring, otherwise disqualifying factor.
The board may not issue a license for any premises within Indian country, as defined in 18 U.S.C. Sec. 1151, including any fee patent lands within the exterior boundaries of a reservation, without the consent of the federally recognized tribe associated with the reservation or Indian country.
A city, town, or county may adopt an ordinance prohibiting a cannabis producer or cannabis processor from operating or locating a business within areas zoned primarily for residential use or rural use with a minimum lot size of five acres or smaller.
In determining whether to grant or deny a license or renewal of any license, the board must give substantial weight to objections from an incorporated city or town or county legislative authority based upon chronic illegal activity associated with the applicant's operations of the premises proposed to be licensed or the applicant's operation of any other licensed premises, or the conduct of the applicant's patrons inside or outside the licensed premises. "Chronic illegal activity" means (a) a pervasive pattern of activity that threatens the public health, safety, and welfare of the city, town, or county including, but not limited to, open container violations, assaults, disturbances, disorderly conduct, or other criminal law violations, or as documented in crime statistics, police reports, emergency medical response data, calls for service, field data, or similar records of a law enforcement agency for the city, town, county, or any other municipal corporation or any state agency; or (b) an unreasonably high number of citations for violations of RCW 46.61.502 associated with the applicant's or licensee's operation of any licensed premises as indicated by the reported statements given to law enforcement upon arrest.
[ 2022 c 16 § 58; 2020 c 154 § 1; 2019 c 394 § 7; 2017 c 317 § 2; 2015 2nd sp.s. c 4 § 301; 2015 c 70 § 6; 2013 c 3 § 6 (Initiative Measure No. 502, approved November 6, 2012); ]
The action, order, or decision of the board as to any denial of an application for the reissuance of a license to produce, process, or sell cannabis, or as to any revocation, suspension, or modification of any license to produce, process, or sell cannabis, or as to the administrative review of a notice of unpaid trust fund taxes under RCW 69.50.565, must be an adjudicative proceeding and subject to the applicable provisions of chapter 34.05 RCW.
An opportunity for a hearing may be provided to an applicant for the reissuance of a license prior to the disposition of the application, and if no opportunity for a prior hearing is provided then an opportunity for a hearing to reconsider the application must be provided the applicant.
An opportunity for a hearing must be provided to a licensee prior to a revocation or modification of any license and, except as provided in subsection (6) of this section, prior to the suspension of any license.
An opportunity for a hearing must be provided to any person issued a notice of unpaid trust fund taxes under RCW 69.50.565.
No hearing may be required under this section until demanded by the applicant, licensee, or person issued a notice of unpaid trust fund taxes under RCW 69.50.565.
The board may summarily suspend a license for a period of up to one hundred eighty days without a prior hearing if it finds that public health, safety, or welfare imperatively require emergency action, and it incorporates a finding to that effect in its order. Proceedings for revocation or other action must be promptly instituted and determined. An administrative law judge may extend the summary suspension period for up to one calendar year from the first day of the initial summary suspension in the event the proceedings for revocation or other action cannot be completed during the initial one hundred eighty-day period due to actions by the licensee. The board's enforcement division shall complete a preliminary staff investigation of the violation before requesting an emergency suspension by the board.
[ 2022 c 16 § 59; 2015 2nd sp.s. c 4 § 201; 2013 c 3 § 7 (Initiative Measure No. 502, approved November 6, 2012); ]
Beginning December 1, 2020, and until July 1, 2029, cannabis retailer licenses that have been subject to forfeiture, revocation, or cancellation by the board, or cannabis retailer licenses that were not previously issued by the board but could have been issued without exceeding the limit on the statewide number of cannabis retailer licenses established before January 1, 2020, by the board, may be issued or reissued to an applicant who meets the cannabis retailer license requirements of this chapter.
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In order to be considered for a retail license under subsection (1) of this section, an applicant must be a social equity applicant and submit a social equity plan along with other cannabis retailer license application requirements to the board. If the application proposes ownership by more than one person, then at least fifty-one percent of the proposed ownership structure must reflect the qualifications of a social equity applicant.
Persons holding an existing cannabis retailer license or title certificate for a cannabis retailer business in a local jurisdiction subject to a ban or moratorium on cannabis retail businesses may apply for a license under this section.
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In determining the issuance of a license among applicants, the board may prioritize applicants based on the extent to which the application addresses the components of the social equity plan.
The board may deny any application submitted under this subsection if the board determines that:
The application does not meet social equity goals or does not meet social equity plan requirements; or
The application does not otherwise meet the licensing requirements of this chapter.
The board may adopt rules to implement this section. Rules may include strategies for receiving advice on the social equity program from individuals the program is intended to benefit. Rules may also require that licenses awarded under this section be transferred or sold only to individuals or groups of individuals who comply with the requirements for initial licensure as a social equity applicant with a social equity plan under this section.
The annual fee for issuance, reissuance, or renewal for any license under this section must be equal to the fee established in RCW 69.50.325.
For the purposes of this section:
"Disproportionately impacted area" means a census tract or comparable geographic area that satisfies the following criteria, which may be further defined in rule by the board after consultation with the commission on African American affairs and other agencies, commissions, and community members as determined by the board:
The area has a high poverty rate;
The area has a high rate of participation in income-based federal or state programs;
The area has a high rate of unemployment; and
The area has a high rate of arrest, conviction, or incarceration related to the sale, possession, use, cultivation, manufacture, or transport of cannabis.
"Social equity applicant" means:
An applicant who has at least fifty-one percent ownership and control by one or more individuals who have resided in a disproportionately impacted area for a period of time defined in rule by the board after consultation with the commission on African American affairs and other commissions, agencies, and community members as determined by the board;
An applicant who has at least fifty-one percent ownership and control by at least one individual who has been convicted of a cannabis offense, a drug offense, or is a family member of such an individual; or
An applicant who meets criteria defined in rule by the board after consultation with the commission on African American affairs and other commissions, agencies, and community members as determined by the board.
"Social equity goals" means:
Increasing the number of cannabis retailer licenses held by social equity applicants from disproportionately impacted areas; and
Reducing accumulated harm suffered by individuals, families, and local areas subject to severe impacts from the historical application and enforcement of cannabis prohibition laws.
"Social equity plan" means a plan that addresses at least some of the elements outlined in this subsection (6)(d), along with any additional plan components or requirements approved by the board following consultation with the task force created in RCW 69.50.336. The plan may include:
A statement that the social equity applicant qualifies as a social equity applicant and intends to own at least fifty-one percent of the proposed cannabis retail business or applicants representing at least fifty-one percent of the ownership of the proposed business qualify as social equity applicants;
A description of how issuing a cannabis retail license to the social equity applicant will meet social equity goals;
The social equity applicant's personal or family history with the criminal justice system including any offenses involving cannabis;
The composition of the workforce the social equity applicant intends to hire;
Neighborhood characteristics of the location where the social equity applicant intends to operate, focusing especially on disproportionately impacted areas; and
Business plans involving partnerships or assistance to organizations or residents with connection to populations with a history of high rates of enforcement of cannabis prohibition.
[ 2022 c 16 § 60; 2021 c 169 § 2; 2020 c 236 § 2; ]
A legislative task force on social equity in cannabis is established. The purpose of the task force is to make recommendations to the board including but not limited to establishing a social equity program for the issuance and reissuance of existing retail, processor, and producer cannabis licenses, and to advise the governor and the legislature on policies that will facilitate development of a cannabis social equity program.
The members of the task force are as provided in this subsection.
The president of the senate shall appoint one member from each of the two largest caucuses of the senate.
The speaker of the house of representatives shall appoint one member from each of the two largest caucuses of the house of representatives.
The president of the senate and the speaker of the house of representatives shall jointly appoint:
One member from each of the following:
The commission on African American affairs;
The commission on Hispanic affairs;
The governor's office of Indian affairs;
An organization representing the African American community;
An organization representing the Latinx community;
A labor organization involved in the cannabis industry;
The liquor and cannabis board;
The department of commerce;
The office of the attorney general; and
The association of Washington cities;
Two members that currently hold a cannabis retail license;
Two members that currently hold a producer license; and
Two members that currently hold a processor license.
In addition to the members appointed to the task force under subsection (2) of this section, individuals representing other sectors may be invited by the chair of the task force, in consultation with the other appointed members of the task force, to participate in an advisory capacity in meetings of the task force.
Individuals participating in an advisory capacity under this subsection are not members of the task force, may not vote, and are not subject to the appointment process established in this section.
There is no limit to the number of individuals who may participate in task force meetings in an advisory capacity under this subsection.
A majority of the task force members constitutes a quorum. If a member has not been designated for a position set forth in this section, that position may not be counted for the purpose of determining a quorum.
The task force shall hold its first meeting by July 1, 2020. The task force shall elect a chair from among its legislative members at the first meeting. The election of the chair must be by a majority vote of the task force members who are present at the meeting. The chair of the task force is responsible for arranging subsequent meetings and developing meeting agendas.
Staff support for the task force, including arranging the first meeting of the task force and assisting the chair of the task force in arranging subsequent meetings, must be provided by the health equity council of the governor's interagency coordinating council on health disparities. The responsibility for providing staff support for the task force must be transferred to the office of equity created under chapter 43.06D RCW when requested by the office of equity.
Legislative members of the task force may be reimbursed for travel expenses in accordance with RCW 44.04.120. Nonlegislative members are not entitled to be reimbursed for travel expenses if they are elected officials or are participating on behalf of an employer, governmental entity, or other organization. Any reimbursement for other nonlegislative members is subject to chapter 43.03 RCW.
The task force is a class one group under chapter 43.03 RCW.
A public comment period must be provided at every meeting of the task force.
The task force shall submit one or more reports on recommended policies that will facilitate the development of a cannabis social equity program in Washington to the governor, the board, and the appropriate committees of the legislature. The task force is encouraged to submit individual recommendations, as soon as possible, to facilitate the board's early work to implement the recommendations. The final recommendations must be submitted by December 9, 2022. The recommendations must include:
Factors the board must consider in distributing the licenses currently available from cannabis retailer licenses that have been subject to forfeiture, revocation, or cancellation by the board, or cannabis retailer licenses that were not previously issued by the board but could have been issued without exceeding the limit on the statewide number of cannabis retailer licenses established by the board before January 1, 2020;
Whether any additional cannabis producer, processor, or retailer licenses should be issued beyond the total number of licenses that have been issued as of June 11, 2020. For purposes of determining the total number of licenses issued as of June 11, 2020, the total number includes licenses that have been forfeited, revoked, or canceled;
The social equity impact of altering residential cannabis agriculture regulations;
The social equity impact of shifting primary regulation of cannabis production from the board to the department of agriculture, including potential impacts to the employment rights of workers;
The social equity impact of removing nonviolent cannabis-related felonies and misdemeanors from the existing point system used to determine if a person qualifies for obtaining or renewing a cannabis license;
Whether to create workforce training opportunities for underserved communities to increase employment opportunities in the cannabis industry;
The social equity impact of creating new cannabis license types; and
Recommendations for the cannabis social equity technical assistance grant program created under RCW 43.330.540.
The board may adopt rules to implement the recommendations of the task force. However, any recommendation to increase the number of retail outlets above the current statewide limit of retail outlets, established by the board before January 1, 2020, must be approved by the legislature.
This section expires June 30, 2023.
[ 2022 c 16 § 61; 2021 c 169 § 3; 2020 c 236 § 5; ]
If the board approves, a license to produce, process, or sell cannabis may be transferred, without charge, to the surviving spouse or domestic partner of a deceased licensee if the license was issued in the names of one or both of the parties. For the purpose of considering the qualifications of the surviving party to receive a cannabis producer's, cannabis processor's, or cannabis retailer's license, the board may require a criminal history record information check. The board may submit the criminal history record information check to the Washington state patrol and to the identification division of the federal bureau of investigation in order that these agencies may search their records for prior arrests and convictions of the individual or individuals who filled out the forms. The board shall require fingerprinting of any applicant whose criminal history record information check is submitted to the federal bureau of investigation.
The proposed sale of more than ten percent of the outstanding or issued stock of a corporation licensed under chapter 3, Laws of 2013, or any proposed change in the officers of such a corporation, must be reported to the board, and board approval must be obtained before the changes are made. A fee of seventy-five dollars will be charged for the processing of the change of stock ownership or corporate officers.
[ 2022 c 16 § 62; 2013 c 3 § 8 (Initiative Measure No. 502, approved November 6, 2012); ]
For the purpose of carrying into effect the provisions of chapter 3, Laws of 2013 according to their true intent or of supplying any deficiency therein, the board may adopt rules not inconsistent with the spirit of chapter 3, Laws of 2013 as are deemed necessary or advisable. Without limiting the generality of the preceding sentence, the board is empowered to adopt rules regarding the following:
The equipment and management of retail outlets and premises where cannabis is produced or processed, and inspection of the retail outlets and premises where cannabis is produced or processed;
The books and records to be created and maintained by licensees, the reports to be made thereon to the board, and inspection of the books and records;
Methods of producing, processing, and packaging cannabis, useable cannabis, cannabis concentrates, and cannabis-infused products; conditions of sanitation; safe handling requirements; approved pesticides and pesticide testing requirements; and standards of ingredients, quality, and identity of cannabis, useable cannabis, cannabis concentrates, and cannabis-infused products produced, processed, packaged, or sold by licensees;
Security requirements for retail outlets and premises where cannabis is produced or processed, and safety protocols for licensees and their employees;
Screening, hiring, training, and supervising employees of licensees;
Retail outlet locations and hours of operation;
Labeling requirements and restrictions on advertisement of cannabis, useable cannabis, cannabis concentrates, cannabis health and beauty aids, and cannabis-infused products for sale in retail outlets;
Forms to be used for purposes of this chapter and chapter 69.51A RCW or the rules adopted to implement and enforce these chapters, the terms and conditions to be contained in licenses issued under this chapter and chapter 69.51A RCW, and the qualifications for receiving a license issued under this chapter and chapter 69.51A RCW, including a criminal history record information check. The board may submit any criminal history record information check to the Washington state patrol and to the identification division of the federal bureau of investigation in order that these agencies may search their records for prior arrests and convictions of the individual or individuals who filled out the forms. The board must require fingerprinting of any applicant whose criminal history record information check is submitted to the federal bureau of investigation;
Application, reinstatement, and renewal fees for licenses issued under this chapter and chapter 69.51A RCW, and fees for anything done or permitted to be done under the rules adopted to implement and enforce this chapter and chapter 69.51A RCW;
The manner of giving and serving notices required by this chapter and chapter 69.51A RCW or rules adopted to implement or enforce these chapters;
Times and periods when, and the manner, methods, and means by which, licensees transport and deliver cannabis, cannabis concentrates, useable cannabis, and cannabis-infused products within the state;
Identification, seizure, confiscation, destruction, or donation to law enforcement for training purposes of all cannabis, cannabis concentrates, useable cannabis, and cannabis-infused products produced, processed, sold, or offered for sale within this state which do not conform in all respects to the standards prescribed by this chapter or chapter 69.51A RCW or the rules adopted to implement and enforce these chapters;
The prohibition of any type of device used in conjunction with a cannabis vapor product and the prohibition of the use of any type of additive, solvent, ingredient, or compound in the production and processing of cannabis products, including cannabis vapor products, when the board determines, following consultation with the department of health or any other authority the board deems appropriate, that the device, additive, solvent, ingredient, or compound may pose a risk to public health or youth access; and
Requirements for processors to submit under oath to the department of health a complete list of all constituent substances and the amount and sources thereof in each cannabis vapor product, including all additives, thickening agents, preservatives, compounds, and any other substance used in the production and processing of each cannabis vapor product.
Rules adopted on retail outlets holding medical cannabis endorsements must be adopted in coordination and consultation with the department.
The board must adopt rules to perfect and expand existing programs for compliance education for licensed cannabis businesses and their employees. The rules must include a voluntary compliance program created in consultation with licensed cannabis businesses and their employees. The voluntary compliance program must include recommendations on abating violations of this chapter and rules adopted under this chapter.
[ 2022 c 16 § 63; 2020 c 133 § 3; 2019 c 394 § 4; 2015 2nd sp.s. c 4 § 1601; 2015 c 70 § 7; 2013 c 3 § 9 (Initiative Measure No. 502, approved November 6, 2012); ]
The board, subject to the provisions of this chapter, must adopt rules that establish the procedures and criteria necessary to implement the following:
Licensing of cannabis producers, cannabis processors, and cannabis retailers, including prescribing forms and establishing application, reinstatement, and renewal fees.
Application forms for cannabis producers must request the applicant to state whether the applicant intends to produce cannabis for sale by cannabis retailers holding medical cannabis endorsements and the amount of or percentage of canopy the applicant intends to commit to growing plants determined by the department under RCW 69.50.375 to be of a THC concentration, CBD concentration, or THC to CBD ratio appropriate for cannabis concentrates, useable cannabis, or cannabis-infused products sold to qualifying patients.
The board must reconsider and increase limits on the amount of square feet permitted to be in production on July 24, 2015, and increase the percentage of production space for those cannabis producers who intend to grow plants for cannabis retailers holding medical cannabis endorsements if the cannabis producer designates the increased production space to plants determined by the department under RCW 69.50.375 to be of a THC concentration, CBD concentration, or THC to CBD ratio appropriate for cannabis concentrates, useable cannabis, or cannabis-infused products to be sold to qualifying patients. If current cannabis producers do not use all the increased production space, the board may reopen the license period for new cannabis producer license applicants but only to those cannabis producers who agree to grow plants for cannabis retailers holding medical cannabis endorsements. Priority in licensing must be given to cannabis producer license applicants who have an application pending on July 24, 2015, but who are not yet licensed and then to new cannabis producer license applicants. After January 1, 2017, any reconsideration of the limits on the amount of square feet permitted to be in production to meet the medical needs of qualifying patients must consider information contained in the medical cannabis authorization database established in RCW 69.51A.230;
Determining, in consultation with the office of financial management, the maximum number of retail outlets that may be licensed in each county, taking into consideration:
Population distribution;
Security and safety issues;
The provision of adequate access to licensed sources of cannabis concentrates, useable cannabis, and cannabis-infused products to discourage purchases from the illegal market; and
The number of retail outlets holding medical cannabis endorsements necessary to meet the medical needs of qualifying patients. The board must reconsider and increase the maximum number of retail outlets it established before July 24, 2015, and allow for a new license application period and a greater number of retail outlets to be permitted in order to accommodate the medical needs of qualifying patients and designated providers. After January 1, 2017, any reconsideration of the maximum number of retail outlets needed to meet the medical needs of qualifying patients must consider information contained in the medical cannabis authorization database established in RCW 69.51A.230;
Determining the maximum quantity of cannabis a cannabis producer may have on the premises of a licensed location at any time without violating Washington state law;
Determining the maximum quantities of cannabis, cannabis concentrates, useable cannabis, and cannabis-infused products a cannabis processor may have on the premises of a licensed location at any time without violating Washington state law;
Determining the maximum quantities of cannabis concentrates, useable cannabis, and cannabis-infused products a cannabis retailer may have on the premises of a retail outlet at any time without violating Washington state law;
In making the determinations required by this section, the board shall take into consideration:
Security and safety issues;
The provision of adequate access to licensed sources of cannabis, cannabis concentrates, useable cannabis, and cannabis-infused products to discourage purchases from the illegal market; and
Economies of scale, and their impact on licensees' ability to both comply with regulatory requirements and undercut illegal market prices;
Determining the nature, form, and capacity of all containers to be used by licensees to contain cannabis, cannabis concentrates, useable cannabis, and cannabis-infused products, and their labeling requirements;
In consultation with the department of agriculture and the department, establishing classes of cannabis, cannabis concentrates, useable cannabis, and cannabis infused products according to grade, condition, cannabinoid profile, THC concentration, CBD concentration, or other qualitative measurements deemed appropriate by the board;
Establishing reasonable time, place, and manner restrictions and requirements regarding advertising of cannabis, cannabis concentrates, useable cannabis, and cannabis-infused products that are not inconsistent with the provisions of this chapter, taking into consideration:
Federal laws relating to cannabis that are applicable within Washington state;
Minimizing exposure of people under twenty-one years of age to the advertising;
The inclusion of medically and scientifically accurate information about the health and safety risks posed by cannabis use in the advertising; and
Ensuring that retail outlets with medical cannabis endorsements may advertise themselves as medical retail outlets;
Specifying and regulating the time and periods when, and the manner, methods, and means by which, licensees shall transport and deliver cannabis, cannabis concentrates, useable cannabis, and cannabis-infused products within the state;
In consultation with the department and the department of agriculture, establishing accreditation requirements for testing laboratories used by licensees to demonstrate compliance with standards adopted by the board, and prescribing methods of producing, processing, and packaging cannabis, cannabis concentrates, useable cannabis, and cannabis-infused products; conditions of sanitation; and standards of ingredients, quality, and identity of cannabis, cannabis concentrates, useable cannabis, and cannabis-infused products produced, processed, packaged, or sold by licensees;
Specifying procedures for identifying, seizing, confiscating, destroying, and donating to law enforcement for training purposes all cannabis, cannabis concentrates, useable cannabis, and cannabis-infused products produced, processed, packaged, labeled, or offered for sale in this state that do not conform in all respects to the standards prescribed by this chapter or the rules of the board.
[ 2022 c 16 § 64; 2019 c 393 § 2; 2018 c 43 § 2; 2015 c 70 § 8; 2013 c 3 § 10 (Initiative Measure No. 502, approved November 6, 2012); ]
The label on a cannabis product container, including cannabis concentrates, useable cannabis, or cannabis-infused products, sold at retail must include:
The business or trade name and Washington state unified business identifier number of the cannabis producer and processor;
The lot numbers of the product;
The THC concentration and CBD concentration of the product;
Medically and scientifically accurate and reliable information about the health and safety risks posed by cannabis use;
Language required by RCW 69.04.480; and
A disclaimer, subject to the following conditions:
Where there is one statement made under subsection (2) of this section, or as described in subsection (5)(b) of this section, the disclaimer must state "This statement has not been evaluated by the State of Washington. This product is not intended to diagnose, treat, cure, or prevent any disease."; and
Where there is more than one statement made under subsection (2) of this section, or as described in subsection (5)(b) of this section, the disclaimer must state "These statements have not been evaluated by the State of Washington. This product is not intended to diagnose, treat, cure, or prevent any disease."
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For cannabis products that have been identified by the department in rules adopted under RCW 69.50.375(4) in chapter 246-70 WAC as being a compliant cannabis product, the product label and labeling may include a structure or function claim describing the intended role of a product to maintain the structure or any function of the body, or characterize the documented mechanism by which the product acts to maintain such structure or function, provided that the claim is truthful and not misleading.
A statement made under (a) of this subsection may not claim to diagnose, mitigate, treat, cure, or prevent any disease.
The labels and labeling may not be:
False or misleading; or
Especially appealing to children.
The label is not required to include the business or trade name or Washington state unified business identifier number of, or any information about, the cannabis retailer selling the cannabis product.
A cannabis product is not in violation of any Washington state law or rule of the board solely because its label or labeling contains:
Directions or recommended conditions of use; or
A warning describing the psychoactive effects of the cannabis product, provided that the warning is truthful and not misleading.
This section does not create any civil liability on the part of the state, the board, any other state agency, officer, employee, or agent based on a cannabis licensee's description of a structure or function claim or the product's intended role under subsection (2) of this section.
Nothing in this section shall apply to a drug, as defined in RCW 69.50.101, or a pharmaceutical product approved by the United States food and drug administration.
[ 2022 c 16 § 66; 2019 c 393 § 3; 2018 c 43 § 1; ]
On a schedule determined by the board, every licensed cannabis producer and processor must submit representative samples of cannabis, useable cannabis, or cannabis-infused products produced or processed by the licensee to an independent, third-party testing laboratory. The purpose of testing representative samples is to certify compliance with quality assurance and product standards adopted by the board under RCW 69.50.342 or the department of health under RCW 69.50.375. In conducting tests of cannabis product samples, testing laboratories must adhere to laboratory quality standards adopted by the state department of agriculture under chapter 15.150 RCW. Any sample remaining after testing shall be destroyed by the laboratory or returned to the licensee submitting the sample.
Independent, third-party testing laboratories performing cannabis product testing under subsection (1) of this section must obtain and maintain accreditation.
Licensees must submit the results of inspection and testing for quality assurance and product standards required under subsection (1) of this section to the board on a form developed by the board.
If a representative sample inspected and tested under this section does not meet the applicable quality assurance and product standards established by the board, the entire lot from which the sample was taken must be destroyed.
The board may adopt rules necessary to implement this section. The state liquor and cannabis board may adopt rules necessary to implement subsection (2) of this section until a successor state agency or agencies assume responsibility for establishing and administering laboratory standards and accreditation.
[ 2022 c 135 § 5; 2022 c 16 § 67; 2019 c 277 § 1; 2013 c 3 § 11 (Initiative Measure No. 502, approved November 6, 2012); ]
Except as provided by chapter 42.52 RCW, no member of the board and no employee of the board shall have any interest, directly or indirectly, in the producing, processing, or sale of cannabis, useable cannabis, or cannabis-infused products, or derive any profit or remuneration from the sale of cannabis, useable cannabis, or cannabis-infused products other than the salary or wages payable to him or her in respect of his or her office or position, and shall receive no gratuity from any person in connection with the business.
[ 2022 c 16 § 69; 2013 c 3 § 12 (Initiative Measure No. 502, approved November 6, 2012); ]
There may be licensed, in no greater number in each of the counties of the state than as the board shall deem advisable, retail outlets established for the purpose of making cannabis concentrates, useable cannabis, and cannabis-infused products available for sale to adults aged twenty-one and over. Retail sale of cannabis concentrates, useable cannabis, and cannabis-infused products in accordance with the provisions of this chapter and the rules adopted to implement and enforce it, by a validly licensed cannabis retailer or retail outlet employee, shall not be a criminal or civil offense under Washington state law.
[ 2022 c 16 § 70; 2015 c 70 § 9; 2014 c 192 § 3; 2013 c 3 § 13 (Initiative Measure No. 502, approved November 6, 2012); ]
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Retail outlets may not sell products or services other than cannabis concentrates, useable cannabis, cannabis-infused products, or paraphernalia intended for the storage or use of cannabis concentrates, useable cannabis, or cannabis-infused products.
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Retail outlets may receive lockable boxes, intended for the secure storage of cannabis products and paraphernalia, and related literature as a donation from another person or entity, that is not a cannabis producer, processor, or retailer, for donation to their customers.
Retail outlets may donate the lockable boxes and provide the related literature to any person eligible to purchase cannabis products under subsection (2) of this section. Retail outlets may not use the donation of lockable boxes or literature as an incentive or as a condition of a recipient's purchase of a cannabis product or paraphernalia.
Retail outlets may also purchase and sell lockable boxes, provided that the sales price is not less than the cost of acquisition.
Licensed cannabis retailers may not employ persons under twenty-one years of age or allow persons under twenty-one years of age to enter or remain on the premises of a retail outlet. However, qualifying patients between eighteen and twenty-one years of age with a recognition card may enter and remain on the premises of a retail outlet holding a medical cannabis endorsement and may purchase products for their personal medical use. Qualifying patients who are under the age of eighteen with a recognition card and who accompany their designated providers may enter and remain on the premises of a retail outlet holding a medical cannabis endorsement, but may not purchase products for their personal medical use.
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Licensed cannabis retailers must ensure that all employees are trained on the rules adopted to implement this chapter, identification of persons under the age of twenty-one, and other requirements adopted by the board to ensure that persons under the age of twenty-one are not permitted to enter or remain on the premises of a retail outlet.
Licensed cannabis retailers with a medical cannabis endorsement must ensure that all employees are trained on the subjects required by (a) of this subsection as well as identification of authorizations and recognition cards. Employees must also be trained to permit qualifying patients who hold recognition cards and are between the ages of eighteen and twenty-one to enter the premises and purchase cannabis for their personal medical use and to permit qualifying patients who are under the age of eighteen with a recognition card to enter the premises if accompanied by their designated providers.
Except for the purposes of disposal as authorized by the board, no licensed cannabis retailer or employee of a retail outlet may open or consume, or allow to be opened or consumed, any cannabis concentrates, useable cannabis, or cannabis-infused product on the outlet premises.
The board must fine a licensee one thousand dollars for each violation of any subsection of this section. Fines collected under this section must be deposited into the dedicated cannabis account created under RCW 69.50.530.
[ 2022 c 16 § 71; 2017 c 317 § 13; 2017 c 131 § 1; 2016 c 171 § 1; 2015 2nd sp.s. c 4 § 203; 2015 c 70 § 12; 2014 c 192 § 4; 2013 c 3 § 14 (Initiative Measure No. 502, approved November 6, 2012); ]
The following acts, when performed by a validly licensed cannabis retailer or employee of a validly licensed retail outlet in compliance with rules adopted by the board to implement and enforce chapter 3, Laws of 2013, do not constitute criminal or civil offenses under Washington state law:
Purchase and receipt of cannabis concentrates, useable cannabis, or cannabis-infused products that have been properly packaged and labeled from a cannabis processor validly licensed under this chapter;
Possession of quantities of cannabis concentrates, useable cannabis, or cannabis-infused products that do not exceed the maximum amounts established by the board under RCW 69.50.345(5);
Delivery, distribution, and sale, on the premises of the retail outlet, of any combination of the following amounts of cannabis concentrates, useable cannabis, or cannabis-infused product to any person twenty-one years of age or older:
One ounce of useable cannabis;
Sixteen ounces of cannabis-infused product in solid form;
Seventy-two ounces of cannabis-infused product in liquid form; or
Seven grams of cannabis concentrate; and
Purchase and receipt of cannabis concentrates, useable cannabis, or cannabis-infused products that have been properly packaged and labeled from a federally recognized Indian tribe as permitted under an agreement between the state and the tribe entered into under RCW 43.06.490.
[ 2022 c 16 § 72; 2015 c 207 § 6; 2015 c 70 § 13; 2014 c 192 § 5; 2013 c 3 § 15 (Initiative Measure No. 502, approved November 6, 2012); ]
The following acts, when performed by a validly licensed cannabis processor or employee of a validly licensed cannabis processor in compliance with rules adopted by the board to implement and enforce chapter 3, Laws of 2013, do not constitute criminal or civil offenses under Washington state law:
Purchase and receipt of cannabis that has been properly packaged and labeled from a cannabis producer validly licensed under chapter 3, Laws of 2013;
Possession, processing, packaging, and labeling of quantities of cannabis, useable cannabis, and cannabis-infused products that do not exceed the maximum amounts established by the board under RCW 69.50.345(4);
Delivery, distribution, and sale of useable cannabis or cannabis-infused products to a cannabis retailer validly licensed under chapter 3, Laws of 2013; and
Delivery, distribution, and sale of useable cannabis, cannabis concentrates, or cannabis-infused products to a federally recognized Indian tribe as permitted under an agreement between the state and the tribe entered into under RCW 43.06.490.
[ 2022 c 16 § 73; 2015 c 207 § 7; 2013 c 3 § 16 (Initiative Measure No. 502, approved November 6, 2012); ]
The following acts, when performed by a validly licensed cannabis producer or employee of a validly licensed cannabis producer in compliance with rules adopted by the board to implement and enforce this chapter, do not constitute criminal or civil offenses under Washington state law:
Production or possession of quantities of cannabis that do not exceed the maximum amounts established by the board under RCW 69.50.345(3);
Delivery, distribution, and sale of cannabis to a cannabis processor or another cannabis producer validly licensed under this chapter;
Delivery, distribution, and sale of immature plants or clones and cannabis seeds to a licensed cannabis researcher, and to receive or purchase immature plants or clones and seeds from a licensed cannabis researcher; and
Delivery, distribution, and sale of cannabis or useable cannabis to a federally recognized Indian tribe as permitted under an agreement between the state and the tribe entered into under RCW 43.06.490.
[ 2022 c 16 § 74; 2017 c 317 § 6; 2015 c 207 § 8; 2013 c 3 § 17 (Initiative Measure No. 502, approved November 6, 2012); ]
No licensed cannabis producer, processor, researcher, or retailer may place or maintain, or cause to be placed or maintained, any sign or other advertisement for a cannabis business or cannabis product, including useable cannabis, cannabis concentrates, or cannabis-infused product, in any form or through any medium whatsoever within one thousand feet of the perimeter of a school grounds, playground, recreation center or facility, child care center, public park, or library, or any game arcade admission to which is not restricted to persons aged twenty-one years or older.
Except for the use of billboards as authorized under this section, licensed cannabis retailers may not display any signage outside of the licensed premises, other than two signs identifying the retail outlet by the licensee's business or trade name, stating the location of the business, and identifying the nature of the business. Each sign must be no larger than one thousand six hundred square inches and be permanently affixed to a building or other structure. The location and content of the retail cannabis signs authorized under this subsection are subject to all other requirements and restrictions established in this section for indoor signs, outdoor signs, and other cannabis-related advertising methods.
A cannabis licensee may not utilize transit advertisements for the purpose of advertising its business or product line. "Transit advertisements" means advertising on or within private or public vehicles and all advertisements placed at, on, or within any bus stop, taxi stand, transportation waiting area, train station, airport, or any similar transit-related location.
A cannabis licensee may not engage in advertising or other marketing practice that specifically targets persons residing outside of the state of Washington.
All signs, billboards, or other print advertising for cannabis businesses or cannabis products must contain text stating that cannabis products may be purchased or possessed only by persons twenty-one years of age or older.
A cannabis licensee may not:
Take any action, directly or indirectly, to target youth in the advertising, promotion, or marketing of cannabis and cannabis products, or take any action the primary purpose of which is to initiate, maintain, or increase the incidence of youth use of cannabis or cannabis products;
Use objects such as toys or inflatables, movie or cartoon characters, or any other depiction or image likely to be appealing to youth, where such objects, images, or depictions indicate an intent to cause youth to become interested in the purchase or consumption of cannabis products; or
Use or employ a commercial mascot outside of, and in proximity to, a licensed cannabis business. A "commercial mascot" means live human being, animal, or mechanical device used for attracting the attention of motorists and passersby so as to make them aware of cannabis products or the presence of a cannabis business. Commercial mascots include, but are not limited to, inflatable tube displays, persons in costume, or wearing, holding, or spinning a sign with a cannabis-related commercial message or image, where the intent is to draw attention to a cannabis business or its products.
A cannabis licensee that engages in outdoor advertising is subject to the advertising requirements and restrictions set forth in this subsection (7) and elsewhere in this chapter.
All outdoor advertising signs, including billboards, are limited to text that identifies the retail outlet by the licensee's business or trade name, states the location of the business, and identifies the type or nature of the business. Such signs may not contain any depictions of cannabis plants, cannabis products, or images that might be appealing to children. The board is granted rule-making authority to regulate the text and images that are permissible on outdoor advertising. Such rule making must be consistent with other administrative rules generally applicable to the advertising of cannabis businesses and products.
Outdoor advertising is prohibited:
On signs and placards in arenas, stadiums, shopping malls, fairs that receive state allocations, farmers markets, and video game arcades, whether any of the foregoing are open air or enclosed, but not including any such sign or placard located in an adult only facility; and
Billboards that are visible from any street, road, highway, right-of-way, or public parking area are prohibited, except as provided in (c) of this subsection.
Licensed retail outlets may use a billboard or outdoor sign solely for the purpose of identifying the name of the business, the nature of the business, and providing the public with directional information to the licensed retail outlet. Billboard advertising is subject to the same requirements and restrictions as set forth in (a) of this subsection.
Advertising signs within the premises of a retail cannabis business outlet that are visible to the public from outside the premises must meet the signage regulations and requirements applicable to outdoor signs as set forth in this section.
The restrictions and regulations applicable to outdoor advertising under this section are not applicable to:
An advertisement inside a licensed retail establishment that sells cannabis products that is not placed on the inside surface of a window facing outward; or
An outdoor advertisement at the site of an event to be held at an adult only facility that is placed at such site during the period the facility or enclosed area constitutes an adult only facility, but in no event more than fourteen days before the event, and that does not advertise any cannabis product other than by using a brand name to identify the event.
Merchandising within a retail outlet is not advertising for the purposes of this section.
This section does not apply to a noncommercial message.
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The board must:
Adopt rules implementing this section and specifically including provisions regulating the billboards and outdoor signs authorized under this section; and
Fine a licensee one thousand dollars for each violation of this section until the board adopts rules prescribing penalties for violations of this section. The rules must establish escalating penalties including fines and up to suspension or revocation of a cannabis license for subsequent violations.
Fines collected under this subsection must be deposited into the dedicated cannabis account created under RCW 69.50.530.
A city, town, or county may adopt rules of outdoor advertising by licensed cannabis retailers that are more restrictive than the advertising restrictions imposed under this chapter. Enforcement of restrictions to advertising by a city, town, or county is the responsibility of the city, town, or county.
[ 2022 c 16 § 75; 2017 c 317 § 14; 2015 2nd sp.s. c 4 § 204; 2013 c 3 § 18 (Initiative Measure No. 502, approved November 6, 2012); ]
A cannabis research license is established that permits a licensee to produce, process, and possess cannabis for the following limited research purposes:
To test chemical potency and composition levels;
To conduct clinical investigations of cannabis-derived drug products;
To conduct research on the efficacy and safety of administering cannabis as part of medical treatment; and
To conduct genomic or agricultural research.
As part of the application process for a cannabis research license, an applicant must submit to the board's designated scientific reviewer a description of the research that is intended to be conducted. The board must select a scientific reviewer to review an applicant's research project and determine that it meets the requirements of subsection (1) of this section, as well as assess the following:
Project quality, study design, value, or impact;
Whether applicants have the appropriate personnel, expertise, facilities/infrastructure, funding, and human/animal/other federal approvals in place to successfully conduct the project; and
Whether the amount of cannabis to be grown by the applicant is consistent with the project's scope and goals.
If the scientific reviewer determines that the research project does not meet the requirements of subsection (1) of this section, the application must be denied.
A cannabis research licensee may only sell cannabis grown or within its operation to other cannabis research licensees. The board may revoke a cannabis research license for violations of this subsection.
A cannabis research licensee may contract with the University of Washington or Washington State University to perform research in conjunction with the university. All research projects, not including those projects conducted pursuant to a contract entered into under RCW 28B.20.502(3), must be approved by the scientific reviewer and meet the requirements of subsection (1) of this section.
In establishing a cannabis research license, the board may adopt rules on the following:
Application requirements;
Cannabis research license renewal requirements, including whether additional research projects may be added or considered;
Conditions for license revocation;
Security measures to ensure cannabis is not diverted to purposes other than research;
Amount of plants, useable cannabis, cannabis concentrates, or cannabis-infused products a licensee may have on its premises;
Licensee reporting requirements;
Conditions under which cannabis grown by licensed cannabis producers and other product types from licensed cannabis processors may be donated to cannabis research licensees; and
Additional requirements deemed necessary by the board.
The production, processing, possession, delivery, donation, and sale of cannabis, including immature plants or clones and seeds, in accordance with this section, RCW 69.50.366(3), and the rules adopted to implement and enforce this section and RCW 69.50.366(3), by a validly licensed cannabis researcher, shall not be a criminal or civil offense under Washington state law. Every cannabis research license must be issued in the name of the applicant, must specify the location at which the cannabis researcher intends to operate, which must be within the state of Washington, and the holder thereof may not allow any other person to use the license.
The application fee for a cannabis research license is two hundred fifty dollars. The annual fee for issuance and renewal of a cannabis research license is one thousand three hundred dollars. The applicant must pay the cost of the review process directly to the scientific reviewer as designated by the board.
The scientific reviewer shall review any reports made by cannabis research licensees under board rule and provide the board with its determination on whether the research project continues to meet research qualifications under this section.
For the purposes of this section, "scientific reviewer" means an organization that convenes or contracts with persons who have the training and experience in research practice and research methodology to determine whether a project meets the criteria for a cannabis research license under this section and to review any reports submitted by cannabis research licensees under board rule. "Scientific reviewers" include, but are not limited to, educational institutions, research institutions, peer review bodies, or such other organizations that are focused on science or research in its day-to-day activities.
[ 2022 c 16 § 76; 2017 c 317 § 3; 2017 c 316 § 3; 2016 sp.s. c 9 § 1; 2015 2nd sp.s. c 4 § 1501; 2015 c 71 § 1; ]
A medical cannabis endorsement to a cannabis retail license is hereby established to permit a cannabis retailer to sell cannabis for medical use to qualifying patients and designated providers. This endorsement also permits such retailers to provide cannabis at no charge, at their discretion, to qualifying patients and designated providers.
An applicant may apply for a medical cannabis endorsement concurrently with an application for a cannabis retail license.
To be issued an endorsement, a cannabis retailer must:
Not authorize the medical use of cannabis for qualifying patients at the retail outlet or permit health care professionals to authorize the medical use of cannabis for qualifying patients at the retail outlet;
Carry cannabis concentrates and cannabis-infused products identified by the department under subsection (4) of this section;
Not use labels or market cannabis concentrates, useable cannabis, or cannabis-infused products in a way that make them intentionally attractive to minors;
Demonstrate the ability to enter qualifying patients and designated providers in the medical cannabis authorization database established in RCW 69.51A.230 and issue recognition cards and agree to enter qualifying patients and designated providers into the database and issue recognition cards in compliance with department standards;
Keep copies of the qualifying patient's or designated provider's recognition card, or keep equivalent records as required by rule of the board or the department of revenue to document the validity of tax exempt sales; and
Meet other requirements as adopted by rule of the department or the board.
The department, in conjunction with the board, must adopt rules on requirements for cannabis concentrates, useable cannabis, and cannabis-infused products that may be sold, or provided at no charge, to qualifying patients or designated providers at a retail outlet holding a medical cannabis endorsement. These rules must include:
THC concentration, CBD concentration, or low THC, high CBD ratios appropriate for cannabis concentrates, useable cannabis, or cannabis-infused products sold to qualifying patients or designated providers;
Labeling requirements including that the labels attached to cannabis concentrates, useable cannabis, or cannabis-infused products contain THC concentration, CBD concentration, and THC to CBD ratios;
Other product requirements, including any additional mold, fungus, or pesticide testing requirements, or limitations to the types of solvents that may be used in cannabis processing that the department deems necessary to address the medical needs of qualifying patients;
Safe handling requirements for cannabis concentrates, useable cannabis, or cannabis-infused products; and
Training requirements for employees.
A cannabis retailer holding an endorsement to sell cannabis to qualifying patients or designated providers must train its employees on:
Procedures regarding the recognition of valid authorizations and the use of equipment to enter qualifying patients and designated providers into the medical cannabis authorization database;
Recognition of valid recognition cards; and
Recognition of strains, varieties, THC concentration, CBD concentration, and THC to CBD ratios of cannabis concentrates, useable cannabis, and cannabis-infused products, available for sale when assisting qualifying patients and designated providers at the retail outlet.
[ 2022 c 16 § 77; 2015 c 70 § 10; ]
A cannabis retailer or a cannabis retailer holding a medical cannabis endorsement may sell products with a THC concentration of 0.3 percent or less. Cannabis retailers holding a medical cannabis endorsement may also provide these products at no charge to qualifying patients or designated providers.
[ 2022 c 16 § 78; 2015 c 70 § 11; ]
Cannabis producers, processors, and retailers are prohibited from making sales of any cannabis or cannabis product, if the sale of the cannabis or cannabis product is conditioned upon the buyer's purchase of any service or noncannabis product. This subsection applies whether the buyer purchases such service or noncannabis product at the time of sale of the cannabis or cannabis product, or in a separate transaction.
The definitions in this subsection apply throughout this section unless the context clearly requires otherwise.
"Cannabis product" means "useable cannabis," "cannabis concentrates," and "cannabis-infused products," as those terms are defined in RCW 69.50.101.
"Noncannabis product" includes paraphernalia, promotional items, lighters, bags, boxes, containers, and such other items as may be identified by the board.
"Selling price" has the same meaning as in RCW 69.50.535.
"Service" includes memberships and any other services identified by the board.
[ 2022 c 16 § 79; 2015 2nd sp.s. c 4 § 211; ]
A licensed cannabis producer, cannabis processor, cannabis researcher, or cannabis retailer, or their employees, in accordance with the requirements of this chapter and the administrative rules adopted thereunder, may use the services of a common carrier subject to regulation under chapters 81.28 and 81.29 RCW and licensed in compliance with the regulations established under RCW 69.50.385, to physically transport or deliver, as authorized under this chapter, cannabis, useable cannabis, cannabis concentrates, immature plants or clones, cannabis seeds, and cannabis-infused products between licensed cannabis businesses located within the state.
An employee of a common carrier engaged in cannabis-related transportation or delivery services authorized under subsection (1) of this section is prohibited from carrying or using a firearm during the course of providing such services, unless:
Pursuant to RCW 69.50.385, the board explicitly authorizes the carrying or use of firearms by such employee while engaged in the transportation or delivery services;
The employee has an armed private security guard license issued pursuant to RCW 18.170.040; and
The employee is in full compliance with the regulations established by the board under RCW 69.50.385.
A common carrier licensed under RCW 69.50.385 may, for the purpose of transporting and delivering cannabis, useable cannabis, cannabis concentrates, and cannabis-infused products, utilize Washington state ferry routes for such transportation and delivery.
The possession of cannabis, useable cannabis, cannabis concentrates, and cannabis-infused products being physically transported or delivered within the state, in amounts not exceeding those that may be established under RCW 69.50.385(3), by a licensed employee of a common carrier when performing the duties authorized under, and in accordance with, this section and RCW 69.50.385, is not a violation of this section, this chapter, or any other provision of Washington state law.
[ 2022 c 16 § 80; 2017 c 317 § 7; 2015 2nd sp.s. c 4 § 501; ]
The board must adopt rules providing for an annual licensing procedure of a common carrier who seeks to transport or deliver cannabis, useable cannabis, cannabis concentrates, and cannabis-infused products within the state.
The rules for licensing must:
Establish criteria for considering the approval or denial of a common carrier's original application or renewal application;
Provide minimum qualifications for any employee authorized to drive or operate the transportation or delivery vehicle, including a minimum age of at least twenty-one years;
Address the safety of the employees transporting or delivering the products, including issues relating to the carrying of firearms by such employees;
Address the security of the products being transported, including a system of electronically tracking all products at both the point of pickup and the point of delivery; and
Set reasonable fees for the application and licensing process.
The board may adopt rules establishing the maximum amounts of cannabis, useable cannabis, cannabis concentrates, and cannabis-infused products that may be physically transported or delivered at one time by a common carrier as provided under RCW 69.50.382.
[ 2022 c 16 § 81; 2015 2nd sp.s. c 4 § 502; ]
A retailer licensed under this chapter is prohibited from operating a vending machine, as defined in RCW 82.08.080(3) for the sale of cannabis products at retail or a drive-through purchase facility where cannabis products are sold at retail and dispensed through a window or door to a purchaser who is either in or on a motor vehicle or otherwise located outside of the licensed premises at the time of sale.
The board may not issue, transfer, or renew a cannabis retail license for any licensee in violation of the provisions of subsection (1) of this section.
[ 2022 c 16 § 82; 2015 2nd sp.s. c 4 § 1301; ]
A licensed cannabis business may enter into an agreement with any person, business, or other entity for:
Any goods or services that are registered as a trademark under federal law, under chapter 19.77 RCW, or under any other state or international trademark law;
Any unregistered trademark, trade name, or trade dress; or
Any trade secret, technology, or proprietary information used to manufacture a cannabis product or used to provide a service related to any cannabis business.
Any agreements entered into by a licensed cannabis business, as authorized under this section, must be disclosed to the board and may include:
A royalty fee or flat rate calculated based on sales of each product that includes the intellectual property or was manufactured or sold using the licensed intellectual property or service, provided that the royalty fee is no greater than an amount equivalent to ten percent of the licensed cannabis business's gross sales derived from the sale of such product;
A flat rate or lump sum calculated based on time or milestones;
Terms giving either party exclusivity or qualified exclusivity as it relates to use of the intellectual property;
Quality control standards as necessary to protect the integrity of the intellectual property;
Enforcement obligations to be undertaken by the licensed cannabis business;
Covenants to use the licensed intellectual property; and
Assignment of licensor improvements of the intellectual property.
A person, business, or entity that enters into an agreement with a licensed cannabis business, where both parties to the agreement are in compliance with the terms of this section, is exempt from the requirement to qualify for a cannabis business license for purposes of the agreements authorized by subsection (1) of this section.
All agreements entered into by a licensed cannabis business, as authorized by this section, are subject to the board's recordkeeping requirements as established by rule.
[ 2022 c 16 § 83; 2019 c 380 § 1; 2017 c 317 § 16; ]
Except as authorized by this chapter, it is unlawful for any person to manufacture, deliver, or possess with intent to manufacture or deliver, a controlled substance.
Any person who violates this section with respect to:
A controlled substance classified in Schedule I or II which is a narcotic drug or flunitrazepam, including its salts, isomers, and salts of isomers, classified in Schedule IV, is guilty of a class B felony and upon conviction may be imprisoned for not more than ten years, or (i) fined not more than twenty-five thousand dollars if the crime involved less than two kilograms of the drug, or both such imprisonment and fine; or (ii) if the crime involved two or more kilograms of the drug, then fined not more than one hundred thousand dollars for the first two kilograms and not more than fifty dollars for each gram in excess of two kilograms, or both such imprisonment and fine;
Amphetamine, including its salts, isomers, and salts of isomers, or methamphetamine, including its salts, isomers, and salts of isomers, is guilty of a class B felony and upon conviction may be imprisoned for not more than ten years, or (i) fined not more than twenty-five thousand dollars if the crime involved less than two kilograms of the drug, or both such imprisonment and fine; or (ii) if the crime involved two or more kilograms of the drug, then fined not more than one hundred thousand dollars for the first two kilograms and not more than fifty dollars for each gram in excess of two kilograms, or both such imprisonment and fine. Three thousand dollars of the fine may not be suspended. As collected, the first three thousand dollars of the fine must be deposited with the law enforcement agency having responsibility for cleanup of laboratories, sites, or substances used in the manufacture of the methamphetamine, including its salts, isomers, and salts of isomers. The fine moneys deposited with that law enforcement agency must be used for such clean-up cost;
Any other controlled substance classified in Schedule I, II, or III, is guilty of a class C felony punishable according to chapter 9A.20 RCW, except as provided in RCW 69.50.475;
A substance classified in Schedule IV, except flunitrazepam, including its salts, isomers, and salts of isomers, is guilty of a class C felony punishable according to chapter 9A.20 RCW; or
A substance classified in Schedule V, is guilty of a class C felony punishable according to chapter 9A.20 RCW.
The production, manufacture, processing, packaging, delivery, distribution, sale, or possession of cannabis in compliance with the terms set forth in RCW 69.50.360, 69.50.363, or 69.50.366 shall not constitute a violation of this section, this chapter, or any other provision of Washington state law.
The fines in this section apply to adult offenders only.
[ 2022 c 16 § 84; 2019 c 379 § 2; 2015 c 265 § 34; 2013 c 3 § 19 (Initiative Measure No. 502, approved November 6, 2012); 2005 c 218 § 1; 2003 c 53 § 331; 1998 c 290 § 1; 1998 c 82 § 2; 1997 c 71 § 2; 1996 c 205 § 2; 1989 c 271 § 104; 1987 c 458 § 4; 1979 c 67 § 1; 1973 2nd ex.s. c 2 § 1; 1971 ex.s. c 308 § 69.50.401; ]
Except as authorized by this chapter, it is unlawful for:
Any person to create or deliver a counterfeit substance; or
Any person to knowingly possess a counterfeit substance.
Any person who violates subsection (1)(a) of this section with respect to:
A counterfeit substance classified in Schedule I or II which is a narcotic drug, or flunitrazepam classified in Schedule IV, is guilty of a class B felony and upon conviction may be imprisoned for not more than ten years, fined not more than twenty-five thousand dollars, or both;
A counterfeit substance which is methamphetamine, is guilty of a class B felony and upon conviction may be imprisoned for not more than ten years, fined not more than twenty-five thousand dollars, or both;
Any other counterfeit substance classified in Schedule I, II, or III, is guilty of a class C felony punishable according to chapter 9A.20 RCW;
A counterfeit substance classified in Schedule IV, except flunitrazepam, is guilty of a class C felony punishable according to chapter 9A.20 RCW;
A counterfeit substance classified in Schedule V, is guilty of a class C felony punishable according to chapter 9A.20 RCW.
A violation of subsection (1)(b) of this section is a misdemeanor. The prosecutor is encouraged to divert such cases for assessment, treatment, or other services.
[ 2021 c 311 § 8; 2003 c 53 § 332; ]
It is unlawful, except as authorized in this chapter and chapter 69.41 RCW, for any person to offer, arrange, or negotiate for the sale, gift, delivery, dispensing, distribution, or administration of a controlled substance to any person and then sell, give, deliver, dispense, distribute, or administer to that person any other liquid, substance, or material in lieu of such controlled substance.
Any person who violates this section is guilty of a class C felony punishable according to chapter 9A.20 RCW.
[ 2003 c 53 § 333; ]
It is unlawful for any person to knowingly possess a controlled substance unless the substance was obtained directly from, or pursuant to, a valid prescription or order of a practitioner while acting in the course of his or her professional practice, or except as otherwise authorized by this chapter.
Except as provided in RCW 69.50.4014, any person who violates this section is guilty of a misdemeanor.
The prosecutor is encouraged to divert cases under this section for assessment, treatment, or other services.
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The possession, by a person twenty-one years of age or older, of useable cannabis, cannabis concentrates, or cannabis-infused products in amounts that do not exceed those set forth in RCW 69.50.360(3) is not a violation of this section, this chapter, or any other provision of Washington state law.
The possession of cannabis, useable cannabis, cannabis concentrates, and cannabis-infused products being physically transported or delivered within the state, in amounts not exceeding those that may be established under RCW 69.50.385(3), by a licensed employee of a common carrier when performing the duties authorized in accordance with RCW 69.50.382 and 69.50.385, is not a violation of this section, this chapter, or any other provision of Washington state law.
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The delivery by a person twenty-one years of age or older to one or more persons twenty-one years of age or older, during a single twenty-four hour period, for noncommercial purposes and not conditioned upon or done in connection with the provision or receipt of financial consideration, of any of the following cannabis products, is not a violation of this section, this chapter, or any other provisions of Washington state law:
One-half ounce of useable cannabis;
Eight ounces of cannabis-infused product in solid form;
Thirty-six ounces of cannabis-infused product in liquid form; or
Three and one-half grams of cannabis concentrates.
The act of delivering cannabis or a cannabis product as authorized under this subsection (5) must meet one of the following requirements:
The delivery must be done in a location outside of the view of general public and in a nonpublic place; or
The cannabis or cannabis product must be in the original packaging as purchased from the cannabis retailer.
No person under twenty-one years of age may possess, manufacture, sell, or distribute cannabis, cannabis-infused products, or cannabis concentrates, regardless of THC concentration. This does not include qualifying patients with a valid authorization.
The possession by a qualifying patient or designated provider of cannabis concentrates, useable cannabis, cannabis-infused products, or plants in accordance with chapter 69.51A RCW is not a violation of this section, this chapter, or any other provision of Washington state law.
[ 2022 c 16 § 85; 2021 c 311 § 9; 2017 c 317 § 15; 2015 2nd sp.s. c 4 § 503; 2015 c 70 § 14; 2013 c 3 § 20 (Initiative Measure No. 502, approved November 6, 2012); 2003 c 53 § 334; ]
Except as provided in RCW 69.50.401(2)(c) or as otherwise authorized by this chapter, any person found guilty of knowing possession of forty grams or less of cannabis is guilty of a misdemeanor. The prosecutor is encouraged to divert cases under this section for assessment, treatment, or other services.
[ 2022 c 16 § 87; 2021 c 311 § 10; 2015 2nd sp.s. c 4 § 505; 2003 c 53 § 335; ]
It is unlawful to compensate, threaten, solicit, or in any other manner involve a person under the age of eighteen years in a transaction unlawfully to manufacture, sell, or deliver a controlled substance.
A violation of this section is a class C felony punishable according to chapter 9A.20 RCW.
[ 2003 c 53 § 336; ]
RCW 69.50.401 through 69.50.4015 shall not apply to offenses defined and punishable under the provisions of RCW 69.50.410.
[ 2003 c 53 § 337; ]
It is unlawful for any person:
Who is subject to Article III to distribute or dispense a controlled substance in violation of RCW 69.50.308;
Who is a registrant, to manufacture a controlled substance not authorized by his or her registration, or to distribute or dispense a controlled substance not authorized by his or her registration to another registrant or other authorized person;
Who is a practitioner, to prescribe, order, dispense, administer, supply, or give to any person:
Any amphetamine, including its salts, optical isomers, and salts of optical isomers classified as a schedule II controlled substance by the commission pursuant to chapter 34.05 RCW; or
Any nonnarcotic stimulant classified as a schedule II controlled substance and designated as a nonnarcotic stimulant by the commission pursuant to chapter 34.05 RCW;
except for the treatment of narcolepsy, or for the treatment of hyperkinesis, or for the treatment of drug-induced brain dysfunction, or for the treatment of epilepsy, or for the differential diagnostic psychiatric evaluation of depression, or for the treatment of depression shown to be refractory to other therapeutic modalities, or for the treatment of multiple sclerosis, or for the treatment of any other disease states or conditions for which the United States food and drug administration has approved an indication, or for the clinical investigation of the effects of such drugs or compounds, in which case an investigative protocol therefor shall have been submitted to and reviewed and approved by the commission before the investigation has been begun: PROVIDED, That the commission, in consultation with the Washington medical commission and the osteopathic disciplinary board, may establish by rule, pursuant to chapter 34.05 RCW, disease states or conditions in addition to those listed in this subsection for the treatment of which Schedule II nonnarcotic stimulants may be prescribed, ordered, dispensed, administered, supplied, or given to patients by practitioners: AND PROVIDED, FURTHER, That investigations by the commission of abuse of prescriptive authority by physicians, licensed pursuant to chapter 18.71 RCW, pursuant to subsection (1)(c) of this section shall be done in consultation with the Washington medical commission;
To refuse or fail to make, keep or furnish any record, notification, order form, statement, invoice, or information required under this chapter;
To refuse an entry into any premises for any inspection authorized by this chapter; or
Knowingly to keep or maintain any store, shop, warehouse, dwelling, building, vehicle, boat, aircraft, or other structure or place, which is resorted to by persons using controlled substances in violation of this chapter for the purpose of using these substances, or which is used for keeping or selling them in violation of this chapter.
[ 2019 c 55 § 12; 2016 c 150 § 1; 2013 c 19 § 107; 2010 c 177 § 7; 2003 c 53 § 338; 1994 sp.s. c 9 § 740; 1980 c 138 § 6; 1979 ex.s. c 119 § 1; 1971 ex.s. c 308 § 69.50.402; ]
It is unlawful for any person knowingly or intentionally:
To distribute as a registrant a controlled substance classified in Schedules I or II, except pursuant to an order form as required by *RCW 69.50.307;
To use in the course of the manufacture, distribution, or dispensing of a controlled substance, or to use for the purpose of acquiring or obtaining a controlled substance, a registration number which is fictitious, revoked, suspended, or issued to another person;
To obtain or attempt to obtain a controlled substance, or procure or attempt to procure the administration of a controlled substance, (i) by fraud, deceit, misrepresentation, or subterfuge; or (ii) by forgery or alteration of a prescription or any written order; or (iii) by the concealment of material fact; or (iv) by the use of a false name or the giving of a false address;
To falsely assume the title of, or represent herself or himself to be, a manufacturer, wholesaler, pharmacist, physician, dentist, veterinarian, or other authorized person for the purpose of obtaining a controlled substance;
To make or utter any false or forged prescription or false or forged written order;
To affix any false or forged label to a package or receptacle containing controlled substances;
To furnish false or fraudulent material information in, or omit any material information from, any application, report, or other document required to be kept or filed under this chapter, or any record required to be kept by this chapter;
To possess a false or fraudulent prescription with intent to obtain a controlled substance; or
To attempt to illegally obtain controlled substances by providing more than one name to a practitioner when obtaining a prescription for a controlled substance. If a person's name is legally changed during the time period that he or she is receiving health care from a practitioner, the person shall inform all providers of care so that the medical and pharmacy records for the person may be filed under a single name identifier.
Information communicated to a practitioner in an effort unlawfully to procure a controlled substance or unlawfully to procure the administration of such substance, shall not be deemed a privileged communication.
A person who violates this section is guilty of a class C felony and upon conviction may be imprisoned for not more than two years, or fined not more than two thousand dollars, or both.
[ 2003 c 53 § 339; 1996 c 255 § 1; 1993 c 187 § 21; 1971 ex.s. c 308 § 69.50.403; ]
Any penalty imposed for violation of this chapter is in addition to, and not in lieu of, any civil or administrative penalty or sanction otherwise authorized by law.
[ 1971 ex.s. c 308 § 69.50.404; ]
If a violation of this chapter is a violation of a federal law or the law of another state, a conviction or acquittal under federal law or the law of another state for the same act is a bar to prosecution in this state.
[ 1971 ex.s. c 308 § 69.50.405; ]
Any person eighteen years of age or over who violates RCW 69.50.401 by distributing a controlled substance listed in Schedules I or II which is a narcotic drug or methamphetamine, including its salts, isomers, and salts of isomers, or flunitrazepam, including its salts, isomers, and salts of isomers, listed in Schedule IV, to a person under eighteen years of age is guilty of a class A felony punishable by the fine authorized by RCW 69.50.401(2) (a) or (b), by a term of imprisonment of up to twice that authorized by RCW 69.50.401(2) (a) or (b), or by both.
Except as provided in RCW 69.50.475, any person eighteen years of age or over who violates RCW 69.50.401 by distributing any other controlled substance listed in Schedules I, II, III, IV, and V to a person under eighteen years of age who is at least three years his or her junior is guilty of a class B felony punishable by the fine authorized by RCW 69.50.401(2) (c), (d), or (e), by a term of imprisonment up to twice that authorized by RCW 69.50.401(2) (c), (d), or (e), or both.
[ 2019 c 379 § 3; 2005 c 218 § 2; 2003 c 53 § 340; 1998 c 290 § 2; 1996 c 205 § 7; 1987 c 458 § 5; 1971 ex.s. c 308 § 69.50.406; ]
Any person who attempts or conspires to commit any offense defined in this chapter is punishable by imprisonment or fine or both which may not exceed the maximum punishment prescribed for the offense, the commission of which was the object of the attempt or conspiracy.
[ 1971 ex.s. c 308 § 69.50.407; ]
Any person convicted of a second or subsequent offense under this chapter may be imprisoned for a term up to twice the term otherwise authorized, fined an amount up to twice that otherwise authorized, or both.
For purposes of this section, an offense is considered a second or subsequent offense, if, prior to his or her conviction of the offense, the offender has at any time been convicted under this chapter or under any statute of the United States or of any state relating to narcotic drugs, cannabis, depressant, stimulant, or hallucinogenic drugs.
This section does not apply to offenses under RCW 69.50.4013.
[ 2022 c 16 § 89; 2003 c 53 § 341; 1989 c 8 § 3; 1971 ex.s. c 308 § 69.50.408; ]
For the purposes of this section only, the following words and phrases shall have the following meanings:
"To sell" means the passing of title and possession of a controlled substance from the seller to the buyer for a price whether or not the price is paid immediately or at a future date.
"For profit" means the obtaining of anything of value in exchange for a controlled substance.
"Price" means anything of value.
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Any person convicted of a violation of subsection (1) of this section shall receive a sentence of not more than five years in a correctional facility of the department of social and health services for the first offense.
Any person convicted on a second or subsequent cause, the sale having transpired after prosecution and conviction on the first cause, of subsection (1) of this section shall receive a mandatory sentence of five years in a correctional facility of the department of social and health services and no judge of any court shall suspend or defer the sentence imposed for the second or subsequent violation of subsection (1) of this section.
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Any person convicted of a violation of subsection (1) of this section by selling heroin shall receive a mandatory sentence of two years in a correctional facility of the department of social and health services and no judge of any court shall suspend or defer the sentence imposed for such violation.
Any person convicted on a second or subsequent sale of heroin, the sale having transpired after prosecution and conviction on the first cause of the sale of heroin shall receive a mandatory sentence of ten years in a correctional facility of the department of social and health services and no judge of any court shall suspend or defer the sentence imposed for this second or subsequent violation: PROVIDED, That the indeterminate sentence review board under RCW 9.95.040 shall not reduce the minimum term imposed for a violation under this subsection.
Whether or not a mandatory minimum term has expired, an offender serving a sentence under this section may be granted an extraordinary medical placement when authorized under RCW 9.94A.728(1)(c).
In addition to the sentences provided in subsection (2) of this section, any person convicted of a violation of subsection (1) of this section shall be fined in an amount calculated to at least eliminate any and all proceeds or profits directly or indirectly gained by such person as a result of sales of controlled substances in violation of the laws of this or other states, or the United States, up to the amount of five hundred thousand dollars on each count.
Any person, addicted to the use of controlled substances, who voluntarily applies to the department of social and health services for the purpose of participating in a rehabilitation program approved by the department for addicts of controlled substances shall be immune from prosecution for subsection (1) offenses unless a filing of an information or indictment against such person for a violation of subsection (1) of this section is made prior to his or her voluntary participation in the program of the department of social and health services. All applications for immunity under this section shall be sent to the department of social and health services in Olympia. It shall be the duty of the department to stamp each application received pursuant to this section with the date and time of receipt.
This section shall not apply to offenses defined and punishable under the provisions of RCW 69.50.401 through 69.50.4015.
[ 2022 c 16 § 90; 2003 c 53 § 342; 1999 c 324 § 6; 1975-'76 2nd ex.s. c 103 § 1; 1973 2nd ex.s. c 2 § 2; ]
It is unlawful for any person to use drug paraphernalia to plant, propagate, cultivate, grow, harvest, manufacture, compound, convert, produce, process, or prepare a controlled substance other than cannabis. Any person who violates this subsection is guilty of a misdemeanor.
It is unlawful for any person to deliver, possess with intent to deliver, or manufacture with intent to deliver drug paraphernalia, knowing, or under circumstances where one reasonably should know, that it will be used to plant, propagate, cultivate, grow, harvest, manufacture, compound, convert, produce, process, or prepare a controlled substance other than cannabis. Any person who violates this subsection is guilty of a misdemeanor.
Any person eighteen years of age or over who violates subsection (2) of this section by delivering drug paraphernalia to a person under eighteen years of age who is at least three years his or her junior is guilty of a gross misdemeanor.
It is unlawful for any person to place in any newspaper, magazine, handbill, or other publication any advertisement, knowing, or under circumstances where one reasonably should know, that the purpose of the advertisement, in whole or in part, is to promote the sale of objects designed or intended for use as drug paraphernalia. Any person who violates this subsection is guilty of a misdemeanor.
It is lawful for any person over the age of eighteen to possess sterile hypodermic syringes and needles for the purpose of reducing blood-borne diseases.
[ 2022 c 16 § 91; 2021 c 311 § 14; 2019 c 64 § 22; 2013 c 3 § 22 (Initiative Measure No. 502, approved November 6, 2012); 2012 c 117 § 368; 2002 c 213 § 1; 1981 c 48 § 2; ]
Every person who sells or gives, or permits to be sold or given to any person any drug paraphernalia in any form commits a class I civil infraction under chapter 7.80 RCW. For purposes of this subsection, "drug paraphernalia" means all equipment, products, and materials of any kind which are used, intended for use, or designed for use in planting, propagating, cultivating, growing, harvesting, manufacturing, compounding, converting, producing, processing, preparing, testing, analyzing, packaging, repackaging, storing, containing, concealing, injecting, ingesting, inhaling, or otherwise introducing into the human body a controlled substance other than cannabis. Drug paraphernalia includes, but is not limited to objects used, intended for use, or designed for use in ingesting, inhaling, or otherwise introducing cocaine into the human body, such as:
Metal, wooden, acrylic, glass, stone, plastic, or ceramic pipes with or without screens, permanent screens, hashish heads, or punctured metal bowls;
Water pipes;
Carburetion tubes and devices;
Smoking and carburetion masks;
Miniature cocaine spoons and cocaine vials;
Chamber pipes;
Carburetor pipes;
Electric pipes;
Air-driven pipes; and
Ice pipes or chillers.
It shall be no defense to a prosecution for a violation of this section that the person acted, or was believed by the defendant to act, as agent or representative of another.
Nothing in subsection (1) of this section prohibits legal distribution of injection syringe equipment through public health and community based HIV prevention programs, and pharmacies.
[ 2022 c 16 § 92; 2013 c 3 § 23 (Initiative Measure No. 502, approved November 6, 2012); 2002 c 213 § 2; 1998 c 317 § 1; ]
The license of any licensed health care practitioner shall be suspended for any violation of this chapter. The suspension shall run concurrently with, and not less than, the term of the sentence for the violation.
[ 1984 c 153 § 21; ]
The parent or legal guardian of any minor to whom a controlled substance, as defined in RCW 69.50.101, is sold or transferred, shall have a cause of action against the person who sold or transferred the controlled substance for all damages to the minor or his or her parent or legal guardian caused by such sale or transfer. Damages shall include: (a) Actual damages, including the cost for treatment or rehabilitation of the minor child's drug dependency, (b) forfeiture to the parent or legal guardian of the cash value of any proceeds received from such sale or transfer of a controlled substance, and (c) reasonable attorney fees.
This section shall not apply to a practitioner, as defined in RCW 69.50.101, who sells or transfers a controlled substance to a minor pursuant to a valid prescription or order.
[ 2020 c 18 § 24; 1986 c 124 § 10; ]
A person who unlawfully delivers a controlled substance in violation of RCW 69.50.401(2) (a), (b), or (c) which controlled substance is subsequently used by the person to whom it was delivered, resulting in the death of the user, is guilty of controlled substances homicide.
Controlled substances homicide is a class B felony punishable according to chapter 9A.20 RCW.
[ 2003 c 53 § 343; 1996 c 205 § 8; 1987 c 458 § 2; ]
It is unlawful for any person knowingly or intentionally to manufacture, deliver, or possess with intent to manufacture or deliver, a controlled substance which, or the container or labeling of which, without authorization, bears the trademark, trade name, or other identifying mark, imprint, number, or device, or any likeness thereof, of a manufacturer, distributor, or dispenser, other than the person who in fact manufactured, distributed, or dispensed the substance.
It is unlawful for any person knowingly or intentionally to make, distribute, or possess a punch, die, plate, stone, or other thing designed to print, imprint, or reproduce the trademark, trade name, or other identifying mark, imprint, or device of another or any likeness of any of the foregoing upon any drug or container or labeling thereof.
A person who violates this section is guilty of a class C felony and upon conviction may be imprisoned for not more than two years, fined not more than two thousand dollars, or both.
[ 2003 c 53 § 344; 1993 c 187 § 22; ]
If a juvenile thirteen years of age or older and under the age of twenty-one is found by a court to have committed any offense that is a violation of this chapter, the court shall notify the department of licensing within twenty-four hours after entry of the judgment, unless the offense is the juvenile's first offense in violation of this chapter and has not committed an offense while armed with a firearm, an unlawful possession of a firearm offense, or an offense in violation of chapter 66.44, 69.41, or 69.52 RCW.
Except as otherwise provided in subsection (3) of this section, upon petition of a juvenile whose privilege to drive has been revoked pursuant to RCW 46.20.265, the court may at any time the court deems appropriate notify the department of licensing to reinstate the juvenile's privilege to drive.
If the conviction is for the juvenile's first violation of this chapter or chapter 66.44, 69.41, or 69.52 RCW, the juvenile may not petition the court for reinstatement of the juvenile's privilege to drive revoked pursuant to RCW 46.20.265 until the later of ninety days after the date the juvenile turns sixteen or ninety days after the judgment was entered. If the conviction was for the juvenile's second or subsequent violation of this chapter or chapter 66.44, 69.41, or 69.52 RCW, the juvenile may not petition the court for reinstatement of the juvenile's privilege to drive revoked pursuant to RCW 46.20.265 until the later of the date the juvenile turns seventeen or one year after the date judgment was entered.
[ 2016 c 136 § 11; 1989 c 271 § 120; 1988 c 148 § 5; ]
Every adult offender convicted of a felony violation of RCW 69.50.401 through 69.50.4013, 69.50.4015, 69.50.402, 69.50.403, 69.50.406, 69.50.407, 69.50.410, or 69.50.415 must be fined one thousand dollars in addition to any other fine or penalty imposed. Unless the court finds the adult offender to be indigent, this additional fine may not be suspended or deferred by the court.
On a second or subsequent conviction for violation of any of the laws listed in subsection (1) of this section, the adult offender must be fined two thousand dollars in addition to any other fine or penalty imposed. Unless the court finds the adult offender to be indigent, this additional fine may not be suspended or deferred by the court.
In addition to any other civil or criminal penalty, every person who violates or causes another to violate RCW 69.50.401 by distributing, dispensing, manufacturing, displaying for sale, offering for sale, attempting to sell, or selling to a purchaser any product that contains any amount of any synthetic cannabinoid, as identified in RCW 69.50.204, must be fined not less than ten thousand dollars and not more than five hundred thousand dollars. If, however, the person who violates or causes another to violate RCW 69.50.401 by distributing, dispensing, manufacturing, displaying for sale, offering for sale, attempting to sell, or selling any product that contains any amount of any synthetic cannabinoid, as identified in RCW 69.50.204, to a purchaser under the age of eighteen, the minimum penalty is twenty-five thousand dollars if the person is at least two years older than the minor. Unless the court finds the person to be indigent, this additional fine may not be suspended or deferred by the court.
[ 2015 2nd sp.s. c 4 § 1204; 2015 c 265 § 36; 2003 c 53 § 345; 1989 c 271 § 106; ]
Any person who violates RCW 69.50.401 by manufacturing, selling, delivering, or possessing with the intent to manufacture, sell, or deliver a controlled substance listed under RCW 69.50.401 or who violates RCW 69.50.410 by selling for profit any controlled substance or counterfeit substance classified in schedule I, RCW 69.50.204, except leaves and flowering tops of cannabis to a person:
In a school;
On a school bus;
Within one thousand feet of a school bus route stop designated by the school district;
Within one thousand feet of the perimeter of the school grounds;
In a public park;
In a public housing project designated by a local governing authority as a drug-free zone;
On a public transit vehicle;
In a public transit stop shelter;
At a civic center designated as a drug-free zone by the local governing authority; or
Within one thousand feet of the perimeter of a facility designated under (i) of this subsection, if the local governing authority specifically designates the one thousand foot perimeter may be punished by a fine of up to twice the fine otherwise authorized by this chapter, but not including twice the fine authorized by RCW 69.50.406, or by imprisonment of up to twice the imprisonment otherwise authorized by this chapter, but not including twice the imprisonment authorized by RCW 69.50.406, or by both such fine and imprisonment. The provisions of this section shall not operate to more than double the fine or imprisonment otherwise authorized by this chapter for an offense.
It is not a defense to a prosecution for a violation of this section that the person was unaware that the prohibited conduct took place while in a school or school bus or within one thousand feet of the school or school bus route stop, in a public park, in a public housing project designated by a local governing authority as a drug-free zone, on a public transit vehicle, in a public transit stop shelter, at a civic center designated as a drug-free zone by the local governing authority, or within one thousand feet of the perimeter of a facility designated under subsection (1)(i) of this section, if the local governing authority specifically designates the one thousand foot perimeter.
It is not a defense to a prosecution for a violation of this section or any other prosecution under this chapter that persons under the age of eighteen were not present in the school, the school bus, the public park, the public housing project designated by a local governing authority as a drug-free zone, or the public transit vehicle, or at the school bus route stop, the public transit vehicle stop shelter, at a civic center designated as a drug-free zone by the local governing authority, or within one thousand feet of the perimeter of a facility designated under subsection (1)(i) of this section, if the local governing authority specifically designates the one thousand foot perimeter at the time of the offense or that school was not in session.
It is an affirmative defense to a prosecution for a violation of this section that the prohibited conduct took place entirely within a private residence, that no person under eighteen years of age or younger was present in such private residence at any time during the commission of the offense, and that the prohibited conduct did not involve delivering, manufacturing, selling, or possessing with the intent to manufacture, sell, or deliver any controlled substance in RCW 69.50.401 for profit. The affirmative defense established in this section shall be proved by the defendant by a preponderance of the evidence. This section shall not be construed to establish an affirmative defense with respect to a prosecution for an offense defined in any other section of this chapter.
In a prosecution under this section, a map produced or reproduced by any municipality, school district, county, transit authority engineer, or public housing authority for the purpose of depicting the location and boundaries of the area on or within one thousand feet of any property used for a school, school bus route stop, public park, public housing project designated by a local governing authority as a drug-free zone, public transit vehicle stop shelter, or a civic center designated as a drug-free zone by a local governing authority, or a true copy of such a map, shall under proper authentication, be admissible and shall constitute prima facie evidence of the location and boundaries of those areas if the governing body of the municipality, school district, county, or transit authority has adopted a resolution or ordinance approving the map as the official location and record of the location and boundaries of the area on or within one thousand feet of the school, school bus route stop, public park, public housing project designated by a local governing authority as a drug-free zone, public transit vehicle stop shelter, or civic center designated as a drug-free zone by a local governing authority. Any map approved under this section or a true copy of the map shall be filed with the clerk of the municipality or county, and shall be maintained as an official record of the municipality or county. This section shall not be construed as precluding the prosecution from introducing or relying upon any other evidence or testimony to establish any element of the offense. This section shall not be construed as precluding the use or admissibility of any map or diagram other than the one which has been approved by the governing body of a municipality, school district, county, transit authority, or public housing authority if the map or diagram is otherwise admissible under court rule.
As used in this section the following terms have the meanings indicated unless the context clearly requires otherwise:
"School" has the meaning under RCW 28A.150.010 or 28A.150.020. The term "school" also includes a private school approved under RCW 28A.195.010;
"School bus" means a school bus as defined by the superintendent of public instruction by rule which is owned and operated by any school district and all school buses which are privately owned and operated under contract or otherwise with any school district in the state for the transportation of students. The term does not include buses operated by common carriers in the urban transportation of students such as transportation of students through a municipal transportation system;
"School bus route stop" means a school bus stop as designated by a school district;
"Public park" means land, including any facilities or improvements on the land, that is operated as a park by the state or a local government;
"Public transit vehicle" means any motor vehicle, streetcar, train, trolley vehicle, or any other device, vessel, or vehicle which is owned or operated by a transit authority and which is used for the purpose of carrying passengers on a regular schedule;
"Transit authority" means a city, county, or state transportation system, transportation authority, public transportation benefit area, public transit authority, or metropolitan municipal corporation within the state that operates public transit vehicles;
"Stop shelter" means a passenger shelter designated by a transit authority;
"Civic center" means a publicly owned or publicly operated place or facility used for recreational, educational, or cultural activities;
"Public housing project" means the same as "housing project" as defined in RCW 35.82.020.
The fines imposed by this section apply to adult offenders only.
[ 2022 c 16 § 93; 2015 c 265 § 37; 2003 c 53 § 346; 1997 c 30 § 2; 1997 c 23 § 1; 1996 c 14 § 2; 1991 c 32 § 4; prior: 1990 c 244 § 1; 1990 c 33 § 588; 1989 c 271 § 112; ]
In addition to any other civil or criminal penalty, every person who violates or causes another to violate RCW 69.50.401 by distributing, dispensing, manufacturing, displaying for sale, offering for sale, attempting to sell, or selling to a purchaser any product that contains any amount of any cathinone or methcathinone, as identified in RCW 69.50.204, must be fined not less than ten thousand dollars and not more than five hundred thousand dollars. If, however, the person who violates or causes another to violate RCW 69.50.401 by distributing, dispensing, manufacturing, displaying for sale, offering for sale, attempting to sell, or selling any product that contains any amount of any cathinone or methcathinone, as identified in RCW 69.50.204, to a purchaser under the age of eighteen, the minimum penalty is twenty-five thousand dollars if the person is at least two years older than the minor. Unless the court finds the person to be indigent, this additional fine may not be suspended or deferred by the court.
[ 2015 2nd sp.s. c 4 § 1205; ]
It is unlawful for any person to possess ephedrine or any of its salts or isomers or salts of isomers, pseudoephedrine or any of its salts or isomers or salts of isomers, pressurized ammonia gas, or pressurized ammonia gas solution with intent to manufacture methamphetamine, including its salts, isomers, and salts of isomers.
Any person who violates this section is guilty of a class B felony and may be imprisoned for not more than ten years, fined not more than twenty-five thousand dollars, or both. Three thousand dollars of the fine may not be suspended. As collected, the first three thousand dollars of the fine must be deposited with the law enforcement agency having responsibility for cleanup of laboratories, sites, or substances used in the manufacture of the methamphetamine, including its salts, isomers, and salts of isomers. The fine moneys deposited with that law enforcement agency must be used for such clean-up cost.
[ 2005 c 218 § 3; 2003 c 53 § 347; 2002 c 134 § 1; 2000 c 225 § 4; 1997 c 71 § 3; 1996 c 205 § 1; ]
It is unlawful to open a package containing cannabis, useable cannabis, cannabis-infused products, or cannabis concentrates, or consume cannabis, useable cannabis, cannabis-infused products, or cannabis concentrates, in view of the general public or in a public place.
For the purposes of this section, "public place" has the same meaning as defined in RCW 66.04.010, but the exclusions in RCW 66.04.011 do not apply.
A person who violates this section is guilty of a class 3 civil infraction under chapter 7.80 RCW.
[ 2022 c 16 § 94; 2015 2nd sp.s. c 4 § 401; 2013 c 3 § 21 (Initiative Measure No. 502, approved November 6, 2012); ]
Nothing in this chapter permits anyone other than a validly licensed cannabis processor to use butane or other explosive gases to extract or separate resin from cannabis or to produce or process any form of cannabis concentrates or cannabis-infused products that include cannabis concentrates not purchased from a validly licensed cannabis retailer as an ingredient. The extraction or separation of resin from cannabis, the processing of cannabis concentrates, and the processing of cannabis-infused products that include cannabis concentrates not purchased from a validly licensed cannabis retailer as an ingredient by any person other than a validly licensed cannabis processor each constitute manufacture of cannabis in violation of RCW 69.50.401. Cooking oil, butter, and other nonexplosive home cooking substances may be used to make cannabis extracts for noncommercial personal use.
Except for the use of butane, the board may not enforce this section until it has adopted the rules required by RCW 69.51A.270.
[ 2022 c 16 § 95; 2015 c 70 § 15; ]
It is an unfair or deceptive practice under RCW 19.86.020 for any person or entity to distribute, dispense, manufacture, display for sale, offer for sale, attempt to sell, or sell to a purchaser any product that contains any amount of any synthetic cannabinoid. The legislature finds that practices covered by this section are matters vitally affecting the public interest for the purpose of applying the consumer protection act, chapter 19.86 RCW. Violations of this section are not reasonable in relation to the development and preservation of business.
"Synthetic cannabinoid" includes any chemical compound identified in RCW 69.50.204(c)(30) or by the pharmacy quality assurance commission under RCW 69.50.201.
[ 2015 2nd sp.s. c 4 § 1201; ]
It is an unfair or deceptive practice under RCW 19.86.020 for any person or entity to distribute, dispense, manufacture, display for sale, offer for sale, attempt to sell, or sell to a purchaser any product that contains any amount of any cathinone or methcathinone as identified in RCW 69.50.204(e) (3) and (5). The legislature finds that practices covered by this section are matters vitally affecting the public interest for the purpose of applying the consumer protection act, chapter 19.86 RCW. Violations of this section are not reasonable in relation to the development and preservation of business.
[ 2015 2nd sp.s. c 4 § 1202; ]
It is unlawful for any person to conduct or maintain a cannabis club by himself or herself or by associating with others, or in any manner aid, assist, or abet in conducting or maintaining a cannabis club.
It is unlawful for any person to conduct or maintain a public place where cannabis is held or stored, except as provided for a licensee under this chapter, or consumption of cannabis is permitted.
Any person who violates this section is guilty of a class C felony punishable under chapter 9A.20 RCW.
The following definitions apply throughout this section unless the context clearly requires otherwise.
"Cannabis club" means a club, association, or other business, for profit or otherwise, that conducts or maintains a premises for the primary or incidental purpose of providing a location where members or other persons may keep or consume cannabis on the premises.
"Public place" means, in addition to the definition provided in RCW 66.04.010, any place to which admission is charged or for which any pecuniary gain is realized by the owner or operator of such place.
[ 2022 c 16 § 96; 2015 2nd sp.s. c 4 § 1401; ]
It is not a violation of this chapter to possess or deliver a controlled substance in compliance with chapter 69.48 RCW.
[ 2018 c 196 § 23; ]
Except as otherwise authorized in this chapter and as provided in subsection (2) of this section, an employee of a retail outlet who sells cannabis products to a person under the age of twenty-one years in the course of his or her employment is guilty of a gross misdemeanor.
An employee of a retail outlet may be prosecuted under RCW 69.50.401 or 69.50.406 or any other applicable provision, if the employee sells cannabis products to a person the employee knows is under the age of twenty-one and not otherwise authorized to purchase cannabis products under this chapter, or if the employee sells or otherwise provides cannabis products to a person under the age of twenty-one outside of the course of his or her employment.
[ 2022 c 16 § 97; 2019 c 379 § 1; ]
It is hereby made the duty of the *state board of pharmacy, the department, the **state liquor control board, and their officers, agents, inspectors and representatives, and all law enforcement officers within the state, and of all prosecuting attorneys, to enforce all provisions of this chapter, except those specifically delegated, and to cooperate with all agencies charged with the enforcement of the laws of the United States, of this state, and all other states, relating to controlled substances as defined in this chapter.
[ 2013 c 3 § 24 (Initiative Measure No. 502, approved November 6, 2012); 1989 1st ex.s. c 9 § 437; 1971 ex.s. c 308 § 69.50.500; ]
The commission may make administrative inspections of controlled premises in accordance with the following provisions:
For purposes of this section only, "controlled premises" means:
places where persons registered or exempted from registration requirements under this chapter are required to keep records; and
places including factories, warehouses, establishments, and conveyances in which persons registered or exempted from registration requirements under this chapter are permitted to hold, manufacture, compound, process, sell, deliver, or otherwise dispose of any controlled substance.
When authorized by an administrative inspection warrant issued pursuant to RCW 69.50.502 an officer or employee designated by the commission, upon presenting the warrant and appropriate credentials to the owner, operator, or agent in charge, may enter controlled premises for the purpose of conducting an administrative inspection.
When authorized by an administrative inspection warrant, an officer or employee designated by the commission may:
inspect and copy records required by this chapter to be kept;
inspect, within reasonable limits and in a reasonable manner, controlled premises and all pertinent equipment, finished and unfinished material, containers and labeling found therein, and, except as provided in subsection (5) of this section, all other things therein, including records, files, papers, processes, controls, and facilities bearing on violation of this chapter; and
inventory any stock of any controlled substance therein and obtain samples thereof.
This section does not prevent the inspection without a warrant of books and records pursuant to an administrative subpoena issued in accordance with chapter 34.05 RCW, nor does it prevent entries and administrative inspections, including seizures of property, without a warrant:
if the owner, operator, or agent in charge of the controlled premises consents;
in situations presenting imminent danger to health or safety;
in situations involving inspection of conveyances if there is reasonable cause to believe that the mobility of the conveyance makes it impracticable to obtain a warrant;
in any other exceptional or emergency circumstance where time or opportunity to apply for a warrant is lacking; or,
in all other situations in which a warrant is not constitutionally required.
An inspection authorized by this section shall not extend to financial data, sales data, other than shipment data, or pricing data unless the owner, operator, or agent in charge of the controlled premises consents in writing.
[ 2013 c 19 § 108; 1971 ex.s. c 308 § 69.50.501; ]
Issuance and execution of administrative inspection warrants shall be as follows:
A judge of a superior court, or a judge of a district court within his or her jurisdiction, and upon proper oath or affirmation showing probable cause, may issue warrants for the purpose of conducting administrative inspections authorized by this chapter or rules hereunder, and seizures of property appropriate to the inspections. For purposes of the issuance of administrative inspection warrants, probable cause exists upon showing a valid public interest in the effective enforcement of this chapter or rules hereunder, sufficient to justify administrative inspection of the area, premises, building, or conveyance in the circumstances specified in the application for the warrant;
A warrant shall issue only upon an affidavit of a designated officer or employee having knowledge of the facts alleged, sworn to before the judge and establishing the grounds for issuing the warrant. If the judge is satisfied that grounds for the application exist or that there is probable cause to believe they exist, he or she shall issue a warrant identifying the area, premises, building, or conveyance to be inspected, the purpose of the inspection, and, if appropriate, the type of property to be inspected, if any. The warrant shall:
State the grounds for its issuance and the name of each person whose affidavit has been taken in support thereof;
Be directed to a person authorized by RCW 69.50.500 to execute it;
Command the person to whom it is directed to inspect the area, premises, building, or conveyance identified for the purpose specified and, if appropriate, direct the seizure of the property specified;
Identify the item or types of property to be seized, if any;
Direct that it be served during normal business hours and designate the judge to whom it shall be returned;
A warrant issued pursuant to this section must be executed and returned within ten days of its date unless, upon a showing of a need for additional time, the court orders otherwise. If property is seized pursuant to a warrant, a copy shall be given to the person from whom or from whose premises the property is taken, together with a receipt for the property taken. The return of the warrant shall be made promptly, accompanied by a written inventory of any property taken. The inventory shall be made in the presence of the person executing the warrant and of the person from whose possession or premises the property was taken, if present, or in the presence of at least one credible person other than the person executing the warrant. A copy of the inventory shall be delivered to the person from whom or from whose premises the property was taken and to the applicant for the warrant;
The judge who has issued a warrant shall attach thereto a copy of the return and all papers returnable in connection therewith and file them with the clerk of the court in which the inspection was made.
[ 2012 c 117 § 369; 1971 ex.s. c 308 § 69.50.502; ]
The superior courts of this state have jurisdiction to restrain or enjoin violations of this chapter.
[ 1971 ex.s. c 308 § 69.50.503; ]
The commission shall cooperate with federal and other state agencies in discharging its responsibilities concerning traffic in controlled substances and in suppressing the abuse of controlled substances.
[ 2013 c 19 § 109; 1971 ex.s. c 308 § 69.50.504; ]
The following are subject to seizure and forfeiture and no property right exists in them:
All controlled substances which have been manufactured, distributed, dispensed, acquired, or possessed in violation of this chapter or chapter 69.41 or 69.52 RCW, and all hazardous chemicals, as defined in RCW 64.44.010, used or intended to be used in the manufacture of controlled substances;
All raw materials, products, and equipment of any kind which are used, or intended for use, in manufacturing, compounding, processing, delivering, importing, or exporting any controlled substance in violation of this chapter or chapter 69.41 or 69.52 RCW;
All property which is used, or intended for use, as a container for property described in (a) or (b) of this subsection;
All conveyances, including aircraft, vehicles, or vessels, which are used, or intended for use, in any manner to facilitate the sale, delivery, or receipt of property described in (a) or (b) of this subsection, except that:
No conveyance used by any person as a common carrier in the transaction of business as a common carrier is subject to forfeiture under this section unless it appears that the owner or other person in charge of the conveyance is a consenting party or privy to a violation of this chapter or chapter 69.41 or 69.52 RCW;
No conveyance is subject to forfeiture under this section by reason of any act or omission established by the owner thereof to have been committed or omitted without the owner's knowledge or consent;
No conveyance is subject to forfeiture under this section if used in the receipt of only an amount of cannabis for which possession constitutes a misdemeanor under RCW 69.50.4014;
A forfeiture of a conveyance encumbered by a bona fide security interest is subject to the interest of the secured party if the secured party neither had knowledge of nor consented to the act or omission; and
When the owner of a conveyance has been arrested under this chapter or chapter 69.41 or 69.52 RCW the conveyance in which the person is arrested may not be subject to forfeiture unless it is seized or process is issued for its seizure within ten days of the owner's arrest;
All books, records, and research products and materials, including formulas, microfilm, tapes, and data which are used, or intended for use, in violation of this chapter or chapter 69.41 or 69.52 RCW;
All drug paraphernalia other than paraphernalia possessed, sold, or used solely to facilitate cannabis-related activities that are not violations of this chapter;
All moneys, negotiable instruments, securities, or other tangible or intangible property of value furnished or intended to be furnished by any person in exchange for a controlled substance in violation of this chapter or chapter 69.41 or 69.52 RCW, all tangible or intangible personal property, proceeds, or assets acquired in whole or in part with proceeds traceable to an exchange or series of exchanges in violation of this chapter or chapter 69.41 or 69.52 RCW, and all moneys, negotiable instruments, and securities used or intended to be used to facilitate any violation of this chapter or chapter 69.41 or 69.52 RCW. A forfeiture of money, negotiable instruments, securities, or other tangible or intangible property encumbered by a bona fide security interest is subject to the interest of the secured party if, at the time the security interest was created, the secured party neither had knowledge of nor consented to the act or omission. No personal property may be forfeited under this subsection (1)(g), to the extent of the interest of an owner, by reason of any act or omission which that owner establishes was committed or omitted without the owner's knowledge or consent; and
All real property, including any right, title, and interest in the whole of any lot or tract of land, and any appurtenances or improvements which are being used with the knowledge of the owner for the manufacturing, compounding, processing, delivery, importing, or exporting of any controlled substance, or which have been acquired in whole or in part with proceeds traceable to an exchange or series of exchanges in violation of this chapter or chapter 69.41 or 69.52 RCW, if such activity is not less than a class C felony and a substantial nexus exists between the commercial production or sale of the controlled substance and the real property. However:
No property may be forfeited pursuant to this subsection (1)(h), to the extent of the interest of an owner, by reason of any act or omission committed or omitted without the owner's knowledge or consent;
The bona fide gift of a controlled substance, legend drug, or imitation controlled substance shall not result in the forfeiture of real property;
The possession of cannabis shall not result in the forfeiture of real property unless the cannabis is possessed for commercial purposes that are unlawful under Washington state law, the amount possessed is five or more plants or one pound or more of cannabis, and a substantial nexus exists between the possession of cannabis and the real property. In such a case, the intent of the offender shall be determined by the preponderance of the evidence, including the offender's prior criminal history, the amount of cannabis possessed by the offender, the sophistication of the activity or equipment used by the offender, whether the offender was licensed to produce, process, or sell cannabis, or was an employee of a licensed producer, processor, or retailer, and other evidence which demonstrates the offender's intent to engage in unlawful commercial activity;
The unlawful sale of cannabis or a legend drug shall not result in the forfeiture of real property unless the sale was forty grams or more in the case of cannabis or one hundred dollars or more in the case of a legend drug, and a substantial nexus exists between the unlawful sale and the real property; and
A forfeiture of real property encumbered by a bona fide security interest is subject to the interest of the secured party if the secured party, at the time the security interest was created, neither had knowledge of nor consented to the act or omission.
Real or personal property subject to forfeiture under this chapter may be seized by any commission inspector or law enforcement officer of this state upon process issued by any superior court having jurisdiction over the property. Seizure of real property shall include the filing of a lis pendens by the seizing agency. Real property seized under this section shall not be transferred or otherwise conveyed until ninety days after seizure or until a judgment of forfeiture is entered, whichever is later: PROVIDED, That real property seized under this section may be transferred or conveyed to any person or entity who acquires title by foreclosure or deed in lieu of foreclosure of a security interest. Seizure of personal property without process may be made if:
The seizure is incident to an arrest or a search under a search warrant or an inspection under an administrative inspection warrant;
The property subject to seizure has been the subject of a prior judgment in favor of the state in a criminal injunction or forfeiture proceeding based upon this chapter;
A commission inspector or law enforcement officer has probable cause to believe that the property is directly or indirectly dangerous to health or safety; or
The commission inspector or law enforcement officer has probable cause to believe that the property was used or is intended to be used in violation of this chapter.
In the event of seizure pursuant to subsection (2) of this section, proceedings for forfeiture shall be deemed commenced by the seizure. The law enforcement agency under whose authority the seizure was made shall cause notice to be served within fifteen days following the seizure on the owner of the property seized and the person in charge thereof and any person having any known right or interest therein, including any community property interest, of the seizure and intended forfeiture of the seized property. Service of notice of seizure of real property shall be made according to the rules of civil procedure. However, the state may not obtain a default judgment with respect to real property against a party who is served by substituted service absent an affidavit stating that a good faith effort has been made to ascertain if the defaulted party is incarcerated within the state, and that there is no present basis to believe that the party is incarcerated within the state. Notice of seizure in the case of property subject to a security interest that has been perfected by filing a financing statement in accordance with chapter 62A.9A RCW, or a certificate of title, shall be made by service upon the secured party or the secured party's assignee at the address shown on the financing statement or the certificate of title. The notice of seizure in other cases may be served by any method authorized by law or court rule including but not limited to service by certified mail with return receipt requested. Service by mail shall be deemed complete upon mailing within the fifteen day period following the seizure.
If no person notifies the seizing law enforcement agency in writing of the person's claim of ownership or right to possession of items specified in subsection (1)(d), (g), or (h) of this section within forty-five days of the service of notice from the seizing agency in the case of personal property and ninety days in the case of real property, the item seized shall be deemed forfeited. The community property interest in real property of a person whose spouse or domestic partner committed a violation giving rise to seizure of the real property may not be forfeited if the person did not participate in the violation.
If any person notifies the seizing law enforcement agency in writing of the person's claim of ownership or right to possession of items specified in subsection (1)(b), (c), (d), (e), (f), (g), or (h) of this section within forty-five days of the service of notice from the seizing agency in the case of personal property and ninety days in the case of real property, the person or persons shall be afforded a reasonable opportunity to be heard as to the claim or right. The notice of claim may be served by any method authorized by law or court rule including, but not limited to, service by first-class mail. Service by mail shall be deemed complete upon mailing within the forty-five day period following service of the notice of seizure in the case of personal property and within the ninety-day period following service of the notice of seizure in the case of real property. The hearing shall be before the chief law enforcement officer of the seizing agency or the chief law enforcement officer's designee, except where the seizing agency is a state agency as defined in RCW 34.12.020(4), the hearing shall be before the chief law enforcement officer of the seizing agency or an administrative law judge appointed under chapter 34.12 RCW, except that any person asserting a claim or right may remove the matter to a court of competent jurisdiction. Removal of any matter involving personal property may only be accomplished according to the rules of civil procedure. The person seeking removal of the matter must serve process against the state, county, political subdivision, or municipality that operates the seizing agency, and any other party of interest, in accordance with RCW 4.28.080 or 4.92.020, within forty-five days after the person seeking removal has notified the seizing law enforcement agency of the person's claim of ownership or right to possession. The court to which the matter is to be removed shall be the district court when the aggregate value of personal property is within the jurisdictional limit set forth in RCW 3.66.020. A hearing before the seizing agency and any appeal therefrom shall be under Title 34 RCW. In all cases, the burden of proof is upon the law enforcement agency to establish, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the property is subject to forfeiture.
The seizing law enforcement agency shall promptly return the article or articles to the claimant upon a determination by the administrative law judge or court that the claimant is the present lawful owner or is lawfully entitled to possession thereof of items specified in subsection (1)(b), (c), (d), (e), (f), (g), or (h) of this section.
In any proceeding to forfeit property under this title, where the claimant substantially prevails, the claimant is entitled to reasonable attorneys' fees reasonably incurred by the claimant. In addition, in a court hearing between two or more claimants to the article or articles involved, the prevailing party is entitled to a judgment for costs and reasonable attorneys' fees.
When property is forfeited under this chapter the commission or seizing law enforcement agency may:
Retain it for official use or upon application by any law enforcement agency of this state release such property to such agency for the exclusive use of enforcing the provisions of this chapter;
Sell that which is not required to be destroyed by law and which is not harmful to the public;
Request the appropriate sheriff or director of public safety to take custody of the property and remove it for disposition in accordance with law; or
Forward it to the drug enforcement administration for disposition.
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When property is forfeited, the seizing agency shall keep a record indicating the identity of the prior owner, if known, a description of the property, the disposition of the property, the value of the property at the time of seizure, and the amount of proceeds realized from disposition of the property.
Each seizing agency shall retain records of forfeited property for at least seven years.
Each seizing agency shall file a report including a copy of the records of forfeited property with the state treasurer each calendar quarter.
The quarterly report need not include a record of forfeited property that is still being held for use as evidence during the investigation or prosecution of a case or during the appeal from a conviction.
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By January 31st of each year, each seizing agency shall remit to the state an amount equal to ten percent of the net proceeds of any property forfeited during the preceding calendar year for deposit into the behavioral health loan repayment program account created in RCW 28B.115.135 through June 30, 2027, and into the state general fund thereafter.
The net proceeds of forfeited property is the value of the forfeitable interest in the property after deducting the cost of satisfying any bona fide security interest to which the property is subject at the time of seizure; and in the case of sold property, after deducting the cost of sale, including reasonable fees or commissions paid to independent selling agents, and the cost of any valid landlord's claim for damages under subsection (15) of this section.
The value of sold forfeited property is the sale price. The value of retained forfeited property is the fair market value of the property at the time of seizure, determined when possible by reference to an applicable commonly used index, such as the index used by the department of licensing for valuation of motor vehicles. A seizing agency may use, but need not use, an independent qualified appraiser to determine the value of retained property. If an appraiser is used, the value of the property appraised is net of the cost of the appraisal. The value of destroyed property and retained firearms or illegal property is zero.
Forfeited property and net proceeds not required to be remitted to the state shall be retained by the seizing law enforcement agency exclusively for the expansion and improvement of controlled substances related law enforcement activity. Money retained under this section may not be used to supplant preexisting funding sources.
Controlled substances listed in Schedule I, II, III, IV, and V that are possessed, transferred, sold, or offered for sale in violation of this chapter are contraband and shall be seized and summarily forfeited to the state. Controlled substances listed in Schedule I, II, III, IV, and V, which are seized or come into the possession of the commission, the owners of which are unknown, are contraband and shall be summarily forfeited to the commission.
Species of plants from which controlled substances in Schedules I and II may be derived which have been planted or cultivated in violation of this chapter, or of which the owners or cultivators are unknown, or which are wild growths, may be seized and summarily forfeited to the commission.
The failure, upon demand by a commission inspector or law enforcement officer, of the person in occupancy or in control of land or premises upon which the species of plants are growing or being stored to produce an appropriate registration or proof that he or she is the holder thereof constitutes authority for the seizure and forfeiture of the plants.
Upon the entry of an order of forfeiture of real property, the court shall forward a copy of the order to the assessor of the county in which the property is located. Orders for the forfeiture of real property shall be entered by the superior court, subject to court rules. Such an order shall be filed by the seizing agency in the county auditor's records in the county in which the real property is located.
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A landlord may assert a claim against proceeds from the sale of assets seized and forfeited under subsection (7)(b) of this section, only if:
A law enforcement officer, while acting in his or her official capacity, directly caused damage to the complaining landlord's property while executing a search of a tenant's residence; and
The landlord has applied any funds remaining in the tenant's deposit, to which the landlord has a right under chapter 59.18 RCW, to cover the damage directly caused by a law enforcement officer prior to asserting a claim under the provisions of this section;
Only if the funds applied under (a)(ii) of this subsection are insufficient to satisfy the damage directly caused by a law enforcement officer, may the landlord seek compensation for the damage by filing a claim against the governmental entity under whose authority the law enforcement agency operates within thirty days after the search;
Only if the governmental entity denies or fails to respond to the landlord's claim within sixty days of the date of filing, may the landlord collect damages under this subsection by filing within thirty days of denial or the expiration of the sixty-day period, whichever occurs first, a claim with the seizing law enforcement agency. The seizing law enforcement agency must notify the landlord of the status of the claim by the end of the thirty-day period. Nothing in this section requires the claim to be paid by the end of the sixty-day or thirty-day period.
For any claim filed under (a)(ii) of this subsection, the law enforcement agency shall pay the claim unless the agency provides substantial proof that the landlord either:
Knew or consented to actions of the tenant in violation of this chapter or chapter 69.41 or 69.52 RCW; or
Failed to respond to a notification of the illegal activity, provided by a law enforcement agency under RCW 59.18.075, within seven days of receipt of notification of the illegal activity.
The landlord's claim for damages under subsection (15) of this section may not include a claim for loss of business and is limited to:
Damage to tangible property and clean-up costs;
The lesser of the cost of repair or fair market value of the damage directly caused by a law enforcement officer;
The proceeds from the sale of the specific tenant's property seized and forfeited under subsection (7)(b) of this section; and
The proceeds available after the seizing law enforcement agency satisfies any bona fide security interest in the tenant's property and costs related to sale of the tenant's property as provided by subsection (9)(b) of this section.
Subsections (15) and (16) of this section do not limit any other rights a landlord may have against a tenant to collect for damages. However, if a law enforcement agency satisfies a landlord's claim under subsection (15) of this section, the rights the landlord has against the tenant for damages directly caused by a law enforcement officer under the terms of the landlord and tenant's contract are subrogated to the law enforcement agency.
[ 2022 c 162 § 1; 2022 c 16 § 98; 2013 c 3 § 25 (Initiative Measure No. 502, approved November 6, 2012); 2009 c 479 § 46; 2009 c 364 § 1; 2008 c 6 § 631; 2003 c 53 § 348; 2001 c 168 § 1; 1993 c 487 § 1; 1992 c 211 § 1; prior: (1992 c 210 § 5; 1992 c 211 § 2; 1990 c 248 § 2; 1990 c 213 § 12; 1989 c 271 § 212; 1988 c 282 § 2; 1986 c 124 § 9; 1984 c 258 § 333; 1983 c 2 § 15; prior: 1982 c 189 § 6; 1982 c 171 § 1; prior: 1981 c 67 § 32; 1981 c 48 § 3; 1977 ex.s. c 77 § 1; 1971 ex.s. c 308 § 69.50.505; ]
It is not necessary for the state to negate any exemption or exception in this chapter in any complaint, information, indictment, or other pleading or in any trial, hearing, or other proceeding under this chapter. The burden of proof of any exemption or exception is upon the person claiming it.
In the absence of proof that a person is the duly authorized holder of an appropriate registration or order form issued under this chapter, he or she is presumed not to be the holder of the registration or form. The burden of proof is upon him or her to rebut the presumption.
No liability is imposed by this chapter upon any authorized state, county, or municipal officer, engaged in the lawful performance of his or her duties.
[ 2012 c 117 § 370; 1971 ex.s. c 308 § 69.50.506; ]
All final determinations, findings, and conclusions of the commission under this chapter are final and conclusive decisions of the matters involved. Any person aggrieved by the decision may obtain review of the decision in the superior court wherein he or she resides or in the superior court of Thurston county, such review to be in conformity with the administrative procedure act, chapter 34.05 RCW.
[ 2013 c 19 § 110; 2012 c 117 § 371; 1971 ex.s. c 308 § 69.50.507; ]
promote better recognition of the problems of misuse and abuse of controlled substances within the regulated industry and among interested groups and organizations;
assist the regulated industry and interested groups and organizations in contributing to the reduction of misuse and abuse of controlled substances;
consult with interested groups and organizations to aid them in solving administrative and organizational problems;
evaluate procedures, projects, techniques, and controls conducted or proposed as part of educational programs on misuse and abuse of controlled substances;
disseminate the results of research on misuse and abuse of controlled substances to promote a better public understanding of what problems exist and what can be done to combat them; and
assist in the education and training of state and local law enforcement officials in their efforts to control misuse and abuse of controlled substances.
establish methods to assess accurately the effects of controlled substances and identify and characterize those with potential for abuse;
make studies and undertake programs of research to:
develop new or improved approaches, techniques, systems, equipment and devices to strengthen the enforcement of this chapter;
determine patterns of misuse and abuse of controlled substances and the social effects thereof; and,
improve methods for preventing, predicting, understanding and dealing with the misuse and abuse of controlled substances; and,
enter into contracts with public agencies, institutions of higher education, and private organizations or individuals for the purpose of conducting research, demonstrations, or special projects which bear directly on misuse and abuse of controlled substances.
The commission may enter into contracts for educational and research activities without performance bonds.
The commission may authorize persons engaged in research on the use and effects of controlled substances to withhold the names and other identifying characteristics of individuals who are the subjects of the research. Persons who obtain this authorization are not compelled in any civil, criminal, administrative, legislative, or other proceeding to identify the individuals who are the subjects of research for which the authorization was obtained.
The commission may authorize the possession and distribution of controlled substances by persons engaged in research. Persons who obtain this authorization are exempt from state prosecution for possession and distribution of controlled substances to the extent of the authorization.
[ 2013 c 19 § 111; 1971 ex.s. c 308 § 69.50.508; ]
If, upon the sworn complaint of any person, it shall be made to appear to any judge of the superior court, district court, or municipal court that there is probable cause to believe that any controlled substance is being used, manufactured, sold, bartered, exchanged, administered, dispensed, delivered, distributed, produced, possessed, given away, furnished or otherwise disposed of or kept in violation of the provisions of this chapter, such judge shall, with or without the approval of the prosecuting attorney, issue a warrant directed to any law enforcement officer of the state, commanding him or her to search the premises designated and described in such complaint and warrant, and to seize all controlled substances there found, together with the vessels in which they are contained, and all implements, furniture and fixtures used or kept for the illegal manufacture, sale, barter, exchange, administering, dispensing, delivering, distributing, producing, possessing, giving away, furnishing or otherwise disposing of such controlled substances, and to safely keep the same, and to make a return of said warrant within three days, showing all acts and things done thereunder, with a particular statement of all articles seized and the name of the person or persons in whose possession the same were found, if any, and if no person be found in the possession of said articles, the returns shall so state. The provisions of RCW 10.31.030 as now or hereafter amended shall apply to actions taken pursuant to this chapter.
[ 1987 c 202 § 228; 1971 ex.s. c 308 § 69.50.509; ]
Whenever a controlled substance which is manufactured, distributed, dispensed, or acquired in violation of this chapter is seized at rental premises, the law enforcement agency shall make a reasonable attempt to discover the identity of the landlord and shall notify the landlord in writing, at the last address listed in the property tax records and at any other address known by the law enforcement agency, of the seizure and the location of the seizure.
[ 1988 c 150 § 9; ]
Law enforcement agencies who during the official investigation or enforcement of any illegal drug manufacturing facility come in contact with or are aware of any substances suspected of being hazardous as defined in RCW 70A.305.020, shall notify the department of ecology for the purpose of securing a contractor to identify, clean up, store, and dispose of suspected hazardous substances, except for those random and representative samples obtained for evidentiary purposes. Whenever possible, a destruct order covering hazardous substances which may be described in general terms shall be obtained concurrently with a search warrant. Materials that have been photographed, fingerprinted, and subsampled by police shall be destroyed as soon as practical. The department of ecology shall make every effort to recover costs from the parties responsible for the suspected hazardous substance. All recoveries shall be deposited in the account or fund from which contractor payments are made.
The department of ecology may adopt rules to carry out its responsibilities under this section. The department of ecology shall consult with law enforcement agencies prior to adopting any rule or policy relating to this section.
[ 2021 c 65 § 65; 2007 c 104 § 17; 1990 c 213 § 13; 1989 c 271 § 228; ]
Upon finding one ounce or less of cannabis inadvertently left at a retail store holding a pharmacy license, the store manager or employee must promptly notify the local law enforcement agency. After notification to the local law enforcement agency, the store manager or employee must properly dispose of the cannabis.
For the purposes of this section, "properly dispose" means ensuring that the product is destroyed or rendered incapable of use by another person.
[ 2022 c 16 § 99; 2013 c 133 § 1; ]
As used in this section, "diversion" means the transfer of any controlled substance from a licit to an illicit channel of distribution or use.
The department shall regularly prepare and make available to other state regulatory, licensing, and law enforcement agencies a report on the patterns and trends of actual distribution, diversion, and abuse of controlled substances.
The department shall enter into written agreements with local, state, and federal agencies for the purpose of improving identification of sources of diversion and to improve enforcement of and compliance with this chapter and other laws and regulations pertaining to unlawful conduct involving controlled substances. An agreement must specify the roles and responsibilities of each agency that has information or authority to identify, prevent, and control drug diversion and drug abuse. The department shall convene periodic meetings to coordinate a state diversion prevention and control program. The department shall arrange for cooperation and exchange of information among agencies and with neighboring states and the federal government.
[ 1998 c 245 § 109; 1993 c 187 § 20; ]
The dedicated ((marijuana))cannabis account is created in the state treasury. All moneys received by the ((state liquor and cannabis)) board, or any employee thereof, from ((marijuana-related))cannabis-related activities must be deposited in the account. Unless otherwise provided in chapter 4, Laws of 2015 2nd sp. sess., all ((marijuana))cannabis excise taxes collected from sales of ((marijuana))cannabis, useable ((marijuana, marijuana))cannabis, cannabis concentrates, and ((marijuana-infused))cannabis-infused products under RCW 69.50.535, and the license fees, penalties, and forfeitures derived under this chapter from ((marijuana))cannabis producer, ((marijuana))cannabis processor, ((marijuana))cannabis researcher, and ((marijuana))cannabis retailer licenses, must be deposited in the account. Moneys in the account may only be spent after appropriation. During the 2015-2017 and 2017-2019 fiscal biennia, the legislature may transfer from the dedicated ((marijuana))cannabis account to the basic health plan trust account such amounts as reflect the excess fund balance of the account.
[ 2022 c 16 § 100; 2018 c 299 § 909; 2016 sp.s. c 36 § 942; 2015 2nd sp.s. c 4 § 1101; 2013 c 3 § 26 (Initiative Measure No. 502, approved November 6, 2012); ]
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There is levied and collected a cannabis excise tax equal to thirty-seven percent of the selling price on each retail sale in this state of cannabis concentrates, useable cannabis, and cannabis-infused products. This tax is separate and in addition to general state and local sales and use taxes that apply to retail sales of tangible personal property, and is not part of the total retail price to which general state and local sales and use taxes apply. The tax must be separately itemized from the state and local retail sales tax on the sales receipt provided to the buyer.
The tax levied in this section must be reflected in the price list or quoted shelf price in the licensed cannabis retail store and in any advertising that includes prices for all useable cannabis, cannabis concentrates, or cannabis-infused products.
All revenues collected from the cannabis excise tax imposed under this section must be deposited each day in the dedicated cannabis account.
The tax imposed in this section must be paid by the buyer to the seller. Each seller must collect from the buyer the full amount of the tax payable on each taxable sale. The tax collected as required by this section is deemed to be held in trust by the seller until paid to the board. If any seller fails to collect the tax imposed in this section or, having collected the tax, fails to pay it as prescribed by the board, whether such failure is the result of the seller's own acts or the result of acts or conditions beyond the seller's control, the seller is, nevertheless, personally liable to the state for the amount of the tax.
The definitions in this subsection apply throughout this section unless the context clearly requires otherwise.
"Board" means the state liquor and cannabis board.
"Retail sale" has the same meaning as in RCW 82.08.010.
"Selling price" has the same meaning as in RCW 82.08.010, except that when product is sold under circumstances where the total amount of consideration paid for the product is not indicative of its true value, "selling price" means the true value of the product sold.
"Product" means cannabis, cannabis concentrates, useable cannabis, and cannabis-infused products.
"True value" means market value based on sales at comparable locations in this state of the same or similar product of like quality and character sold under comparable conditions of sale to comparable purchasers. However, in the absence of such sales of the same or similar product, true value means the value of the product sold as determined by all of the seller's direct and indirect costs attributable to the product.
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The board must regularly review the tax level established under this section and make recommendations, in consultation with the department of revenue, to the legislature as appropriate regarding adjustments that would further the goal of discouraging use while undercutting illegal market prices.
The board must report, in compliance with RCW 43.01.036, to the appropriate committees of the legislature every two years. The report at a minimum must include the following:
The specific recommendations required under (a) of this subsection;
A comparison of gross sales and tax collections prior to and after any cannabis tax change;
The increase or decrease in the volume of legal cannabis sold prior to and after any cannabis tax change;
Increases or decreases in the number of licensed cannabis producers, processors, and retailers;
The number of illegal and noncompliant cannabis outlets the board requires to be closed;
Gross cannabis sales and tax collections in Oregon; and
The total amount of reported sales and use taxes exempted for qualifying patients. The department of revenue must provide the data of exempt amounts to the board.
The board is not required to report to the legislature as required in (b) of this subsection after January 1, 2025.
The legislature does not intend and does not authorize any person or entity to engage in activities or to conspire to engage in activities that would constitute per se violations of state and federal antitrust laws including, but not limited to, agreements among retailers as to the selling price of any goods sold.
[ 2022 c 16 § 101; 2015 2nd sp.s. c 4 § 205; 2014 c 192 § 7; 2013 c 3 § 27 (Initiative Measure No. 502, approved November 6, 2012); ]
The legislature must annually appropriate moneys in the dedicated ((marijuana))cannabis account created in RCW 69.50.530 as follows:
For the purposes listed in this subsection (1), the legislature must appropriate to the respective agencies amounts sufficient to make the following expenditures on a quarterly basis or as provided in this subsection:
One hundred twenty-five thousand dollars to the health care authority to design and administer the Washington state healthy youth survey, analyze the collected data, and produce reports, in collaboration with the office of the superintendent of public instruction, department of health, department of commerce, family policy council, and board. The survey must be conducted at least every two years and include questions regarding, but not necessarily limited to, academic achievement, age at time of substance use initiation, antisocial behavior of friends, attitudes toward antisocial behavior, attitudes toward substance use, laws and community norms regarding antisocial behavior, family conflict, family management, parental attitudes toward substance use, peer rewarding of antisocial behavior, perceived risk of substance use, and rebelliousness. Funds disbursed under this subsection may be used to expand administration of the healthy youth survey to student populations attending institutions of higher education in Washington;
Fifty thousand dollars to the health care authority for the purpose of contracting with the Washington state institute for public policy to conduct the cost-benefit evaluation and produce the reports described in RCW 69.50.550. This appropriation ends after production of the final report required by RCW 69.50.550;
Five thousand dollars to the University of Washington alcohol and drug abuse institute for the creation, maintenance, and timely updating of web-based public education materials providing medically and scientifically accurate information about the health and safety risks posed by ((marijuana))cannabis use;
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An amount not less than one million two hundred fifty thousand dollars to the board for administration of this chapter as appropriated in the omnibus appropriations act;
One million three hundred twenty-three thousand dollars for fiscal year 2020 to the health professions account established under RCW 43.70.320 for the development and administration of the ((marijuana))cannabis authorization database by the department of health;
Two million four hundred fifty-three thousand dollars for fiscal year 2020 and two million four hundred twenty-three thousand dollars for fiscal years 2021, 2022, and 2023 to the Washington state patrol for a drug enforcement task force. It is the intent of the legislature that this policy will be continued in the 2021-2023 fiscal biennium; and
Ninety-eight thousand dollars for fiscal year 2019 to the department of ecology for research on accreditation of ((marijuana))cannabis product testing laboratories;
Four hundred sixty-five thousand dollars for fiscal year 2020, four hundred sixty-four thousand dollars for fiscal year 2021, two hundred seventy thousand dollars in fiscal year 2022, and two hundred seventy-six thousand dollars in fiscal year 2023 to the department of ecology for implementation of accreditation of ((marijuana))cannabis product testing laboratories;
One hundred eighty-nine thousand dollars for fiscal year 2020 to the department of health for rule making regarding compassionate care renewals;
Eight hundred eight thousand dollars for each of fiscal years 2020 through 2023 to the department of health for the administration of the ((marijuana))cannabis authorization database;
Six hundred thirty-five thousand dollars for fiscal year 2020, six hundred thirty-five thousand dollars for fiscal year 2021, six hundred twenty-one thousand dollars for fiscal year 2022, and six hundred twenty-seven thousand dollars for fiscal year 2023 to the department of agriculture for compliance-based laboratory analysis of pesticides in ((marijuana))cannabis;
One million six hundred fifty thousand dollars for fiscal year 2022 and one million six hundred fifty thousand dollars for fiscal year 2023 to the department of commerce to fund the ((marijuana))cannabis social equity technical assistance ((competitive)) grant program under RCW 43.330.540; and
One hundred sixty-three thousand dollars for fiscal year 2022 and one hundred fifty-nine thousand dollars for fiscal year 2023 to the department of commerce to establish a roster of mentors as part of the cannabis social equity technical assistance grant program under ((Engrossed Substitute House Bill No. 1443 (cannabis industry/equity) [chapter 169, Laws of 2021]))RCW 43.330.540; and
From the amounts in the dedicated ((marijuana))cannabis account after appropriation of the amounts identified in subsection (1) of this section, the legislature must appropriate for the purposes listed in this subsection (2) as follows:
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Up to fifteen percent to the health care authority for the development, implementation, maintenance, and evaluation of programs and practices aimed at the prevention or reduction of maladaptive substance use, substance use disorder, substance abuse or substance dependence, as these terms are defined in the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, among middle school and high school-age students, whether as an explicit goal of a given program or practice or as a consistently corresponding effect of its implementation, mental health services for children and youth, and services for pregnant and parenting women; PROVIDED, That:
Of the funds appropriated under (a)(i) of this subsection for new programs and new services, at least eighty-five percent must be directed to evidence-based or research-based programs and practices that produce objectively measurable results and, by September 1, 2020, are cost-beneficial; and
Up to fifteen percent of the funds appropriated under (a)(i) of this subsection for new programs and new services may be directed to proven and tested practices, emerging best practices, or promising practices.
In deciding which programs and practices to fund, the director of the health care authority must consult, at least annually, with the University of Washington's social development research group and the University of Washington's alcohol and drug abuse institute.
For each fiscal year, the legislature must appropriate a minimum of twenty-five million five hundred thirty-six thousand dollars under this subsection (2)(a);
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Up to ten percent to the department of health for the following, subject to (b)(ii) of this subsection (2):
Creation, implementation, operation, and management of a ((marijuana))cannabis education and public health program that contains the following:
I. A ((marijuana))cannabis use public health hotline that provides referrals to substance abuse treatment providers, utilizes evidence-based or research-based public health approaches to minimizing the harms associated with ((marijuana))cannabis use, and does not solely advocate an abstinence-only approach;
A grants program for local health departments or other local community agencies that supports development and implementation of coordinated intervention strategies for the prevention and reduction of ((marijuana))cannabis use by youth; and
Media-based education campaigns across television, internet, radio, print, and out-of-home advertising, separately targeting youth and adults, that provide medically and scientifically accurate information about the health and safety risks posed by ((marijuana))cannabis use; and
The Washington poison control center.
For each fiscal year, the legislature must appropriate a minimum of nine million seven hundred fifty thousand dollars under this subsection (2)(b);
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Up to six-tenths of one percent to the University of Washington and four-tenths of one percent to Washington State University for research on the short and long-term effects of ((marijuana))cannabis use, to include but not be limited to formal and informal methods for estimating and measuring intoxication and impairment, and for the dissemination of such research.
For each fiscal year, except for the 2019-2021 and 2021-2023 fiscal biennia, the legislature must appropriate a minimum of one million twenty-one thousand dollars to the University of Washington. For each fiscal year, except for the 2019-2021 and 2021-2023 fiscal biennia, the legislature must appropriate a minimum of six hundred eighty-one thousand dollars to Washington State University under this subsection (2)(c). It is the intent of the legislature that this policy will be continued in the 2023-2025 fiscal biennium;
Fifty percent to the state basic health plan trust account to be administered by the Washington basic health plan administrator and used as provided under chapter 70.47 RCW;
Five percent to the Washington state health care authority to be expended exclusively through contracts with community health centers to provide primary health and dental care services, migrant health services, and maternity health care services as provided under RCW 41.05.220;
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Up to three-tenths of one percent to the office of the superintendent of public instruction to fund grants to building bridges programs under chapter 28A.175 RCW.
For each fiscal year, the legislature must appropriate a minimum of five hundred eleven thousand dollars to the office of the superintendent of public instruction under this subsection (2)(f); and
At the end of each fiscal year, the treasurer must transfer any amounts in the dedicated ((marijuana))cannabis account that are not appropriated pursuant to subsection (1) of this section and this subsection (2) into the general fund, except as provided in (g)(i) of this subsection (2).
Beginning in fiscal year 2018, if ((marijuana))cannabis excise tax collections deposited into the general fund in the prior fiscal year exceed twenty-five million dollars, then each fiscal year the legislature must appropriate an amount equal to thirty percent of all ((marijuana))cannabis excise taxes deposited into the general fund the prior fiscal year to the treasurer for distribution to counties, cities, and towns as follows:
Thirty percent must be distributed to counties, cities, and towns where licensed ((marijuana))cannabis retailers are physically located. Each jurisdiction must receive a share of the revenue distribution under this subsection (2)(g)(i)(A) based on the proportional share of the total revenues generated in the individual jurisdiction from the taxes collected under RCW 69.50.535, from licensed ((marijuana))cannabis retailers physically located in each jurisdiction. For purposes of this subsection (2)(g)(i)(A), one hundred percent of the proportional amount attributed to a retailer physically located in a city or town must be distributed to the city or town.
Seventy percent must be distributed to counties, cities, and towns ratably on a per capita basis. Counties must receive sixty percent of the distribution, which must be disbursed based on each county's total proportional population. Funds may only be distributed to jurisdictions that do not prohibit the siting of any state licensed ((marijuana))cannabis producer, processor, or retailer.
Distribution amounts allocated to each county, city, and town must be distributed in four installments by the last day of each fiscal quarter.
By September 15th of each year, the board must provide the state treasurer the annual distribution amount, if any, for each county and city as determined in (g)(i) of this subsection (2).
The total share of ((marijuana))cannabis excise tax revenues distributed to counties and cities in (g)(i) of this subsection (2) may not exceed fifteen million dollars in fiscal years 2018, 2019, 2020, and 2021, and twenty million dollars per fiscal year thereafter.
[ 2022 c 16 § 102; 2021 c 334 § 986; 2020 c 357 § 916; 2020 c 236 § 4; 2019 c 415 § 978; prior: 2018 c 299 § 910; 2018 c 201 § 8014; 2017 3rd sp.s. c 1 § 979; 2015 3rd sp.s. c 4 § 967; 2015 2nd sp.s. c 4 § 206; 2013 c 3 § 28 (Initiative Measure No. 502, approved November 6, 2012); ]
The Washington state institute for public policy shall conduct cost-benefit evaluations of the implementation of chapter 3, Laws of 2013. A preliminary report, and recommendations to appropriate committees of the legislature, shall be made by September 1, 2015, and the first final report with recommendations by September 1, 2017. Subsequent reports shall be due September 1, 2022, and September 1, 2032.
The evaluation of the implementation of chapter 3, Laws of 2013 shall include, but not necessarily be limited to, consideration of the following factors:
Public health, to include but not be limited to:
Health costs associated with cannabis use;
Health costs associated with criminal prohibition of cannabis, including lack of product safety or quality control regulations and the relegation of cannabis to the same illegal market as potentially more dangerous substances; and
The impact of increased investment in the research, evaluation, education, prevention and intervention programs, practices, and campaigns identified in RCW 69.50.363 on rates of cannabis-related maladaptive substance use and diagnosis of cannabis-related substance use disorder, substance abuse, or substance dependence, as these terms are defined in the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders;
Public safety, to include but not be limited to:
Public safety issues relating to cannabis use; and
Public safety issues relating to criminal prohibition of cannabis;
Youth and adult rates of the following:
Cannabis use;
Maladaptive use of cannabis; and
Diagnosis of cannabis-related substance use disorder, substance abuse, or substance dependence, including primary, secondary, and tertiary choices of substance;
Economic impacts in the private and public sectors, including but not limited to:
Jobs creation;
Workplace safety;
Revenues; and
Taxes generated for state and local budgets;
Criminal justice impacts, to include but not be limited to:
Use of public resources like law enforcement officers and equipment, prosecuting attorneys and public defenders, judges and court staff, the Washington state patrol crime lab and identification and criminal history section, jails and prisons, and misdemeanant and felon supervision officers to enforce state criminal laws regarding cannabis; and
Short and long-term consequences of involvement in the criminal justice system for persons accused of crimes relating to cannabis, their families, and their communities; and
State and local agency administrative costs and revenues.
[ 2022 c 16 § 103; 2013 c 3 § 30 (Initiative Measure No. 502, approved November 6, 2012); ]
The taxes, fees, assessments, and other charges imposed by this chapter do not apply to commercial activities related to the production, processing, sale, and possession of cannabis, useable cannabis, cannabis concentrates, and cannabis-infused products covered by an agreement entered into under RCW 43.06.490.
[ 2022 c 16 § 104; 2015 c 207 § 3; ]
The board may conduct controlled purchase programs to determine whether:
A cannabis retailer is unlawfully selling cannabis to persons under the age of twenty-one;
A cannabis retailer holding a medical cannabis endorsement is selling to persons under the age of eighteen or selling to persons between the ages of eighteen and twenty-one who do not hold valid recognition cards; or
A cooperative organized under RCW 69.51A.250 is permitting a person under the age of twenty-one to participate.
Every person under the age of twenty-one years who purchases or attempts to purchase cannabis is guilty of a violation of this section. This section does not apply to:
Persons between the ages of eighteen and twenty-one who hold valid recognition cards and purchase cannabis at a cannabis retail outlet holding a medical cannabis endorsement;
Persons between the ages of eighteen and twenty-one years who are participating in a controlled purchase program authorized by the board under rules adopted by the board. Violations occurring under a private, controlled purchase program authorized by the board may not be used for criminal or administrative prosecution.
A cannabis retailer who conducts an in-house controlled purchase program authorized under this section shall provide his or her employees a written description of the employer's in-house controlled purchase program. The written description must include notice of actions an employer may take as a consequence of an employee's failure to comply with company policies regarding the sale of cannabis during an in-house controlled purchase program.
An in-house controlled purchase program authorized under this section shall be for the purposes of employee training and employer self-compliance checks. A cannabis retailer may not terminate an employee solely for a first-time failure to comply with company policies regarding the sale of cannabis during an in-house controlled purchase program authorized under this section.
Every person between the ages of eighteen and twenty-one who is convicted of a violation of this section is guilty of a misdemeanor punishable as provided by RCW 9A.20.021.
[ 2022 c 16 § 105; 2015 c 70 § 33; ]
The board may grant a licensee's application for advice and consultation as provided in RCW 69.50.342(3) and visit the licensee's licensed premises in order to provide such advice and consultation. Advice and consultation services are limited to the matters specified in the request affecting the interpretation and applicability of the standards in this chapter to the conditions, structures, machines, equipment, apparatus, devices, materials, methods, means, and practices in the licensee's licensed premises. The board may provide for an alternative means of affording consultation and advice other than on-site consultation.
The board must make recommendations on eliminating areas of concern disclosed within the scope of the on-site consultation. A visit to a licensee's licensed premises may not be considered an inspection or investigation under this chapter. During the visit, the board may not issue notices or citations and may not assess civil penalties. However, if the on-site visit discloses a violation with a direct or immediate relationship to public safety and the violation is not corrected, the board may investigate.
This section does not provide immunity to a licensee who has applied for consultative services from inspections or investigations conducted under this chapter or from any inspection conducted as a result of a complaint before, during, or after the provision of consultative services.
This section does not require an inspection of a licensee's licensed premises that has been visited for consultative purposes. However, if the premises are inspected after a visit, the board may consider any information obtained during the consultation visit in determining the nature of an alleged violation and the amount of penalties to be assessed, if any.
Rules adopted under RCW 69.50.562 must provide that violations with a direct or immediate relationship to public safety discovered during the consultation visit must be corrected within a specified period of time and an inspection must be conducted at the end of that time period.
All licensees requesting consultative services must be advised of this section and the rules adopted by the board relating to the voluntary compliance program. Valuable formulae or financial or proprietary commercial information records received during a consultative visit or while providing consultative services in accordance with this section are not subject to inspection pursuant to chapter 42.56 RCW.
The board may adopt rules on the frequency, manner, and method of providing consultative services to licensees. Rules may include scheduling of consultative services and prioritizing requests for the services while maintaining the enforcement requirements of this chapter.
[ 2019 c 394 § 5; ]
The board must prescribe procedures for the following:
Issuance of written warnings or notices to correct in lieu of penalties, sanctions, or other violations with respect to regulatory violations that have no direct or immediate relationship to public safety as defined by the board;
Waiving any fines, civil penalties, or administrative sanctions for violations, that have no direct or immediate relationship to public safety, and are corrected by the licensee within a reasonable amount of time as designated by the board; and
A compliance program in accordance with chapter 43.05 RCW and RCW 69.50.342, whereby licensees may request compliance assistance and inspections without issuance of a penalty, sanction, or other violation provided that any noncompliant issues are resolved within a specified period of time.
The board must adopt rules prescribing penalties for violations of this chapter. The board:
May establish escalating penalties for violation of this chapter, provided that the cumulative effect of any such escalating penalties cannot last beyond two years and the escalation applies only to multiple violations that are the same or similar in nature;
May not include cancellation of a license for a single violation, unless the board can prove by a preponderance of the evidence:
Diversion of cannabis product to the illicit market or sales across state lines;
Furnishing of cannabis product to minors;
Diversion of revenue to criminal enterprises, gangs, cartels, or parties not qualified to hold a cannabis license based on criminal history requirements;
The commission of noncannabis-related crimes; or
Knowingly making a misrepresentation of fact to the board, an officer of the board, or an employee of the board related to conduct or an action that is, or alleged to be, any of the violations identified in (b)(i) through (iv) of this subsection (2);
May include cancellation of a license for cumulative violations only if a cannabis licensee commits at least four violations within a two-year period of time;
Must consider aggravating and mitigating circumstances and deviate from the prescribed penalties accordingly, and must authorize enforcement officers to do the same, provided that such penalty may not exceed the maximum escalating penalty prescribed by the board for that violation; and
Must give substantial consideration to mitigating any penalty imposed on a licensee when there is employee misconduct that led to the violation and the licensee:
Established a compliance program designed to prevent the violation;
Performed meaningful training with employees designed to prevent the violation; and
Had not enabled or ignored the violation or other similar violations in the past.
The board may not consider any violation that occurred more than two years prior as grounds for denial, suspension, revocation, cancellation, or nonrenewal, unless the board can prove by a preponderance of the evidence that the prior administrative violation evidences:
Diversion of cannabis product to the illicit market or sales across state lines;
Furnishing of cannabis product to minors;
Diversion of revenue to criminal enterprises, gangs, cartels, or parties not qualified to hold a cannabis license based on criminal history requirements;
The commission of noncannabis-related crimes; or
Knowingly making a misrepresentation of fact to the board, an officer of the board, or an employee of the board related to conduct or an action that is, or is alleged to be, any of the violations identified in (a) through (d) of this subsection (3).
[ 2022 c 16 § 106; 2019 c 394 § 6; ]
The board may issue a civil penalty without first issuing a notice of correction if:
The licensee has previously been subject to an enforcement action for the same or similar type of violation of the same statute or rule or has been given previous notice of the same or similar type of violation of the same statute or rule;
Compliance is not achieved by the date established by the board in a previously issued notice of correction and if the board has responded to a request for review of the date by reaffirming the original date or establishing a new date; or
The board can prove by a preponderance of the evidence:
Diversion of cannabis product to the illicit market or sales across state lines;
Furnishing of cannabis product to minors;
Diversion of revenue to criminal enterprises, gangs, cartels, or parties not qualified to hold a cannabis license based on criminal history requirements;
The commission of noncannabis-related crimes; or
Knowingly making a misrepresentation of fact to the board, an officer of the board, or an employee of the board related to conduct or an action that is, or is alleged to be, any of the violations identified in (c)(i) through (iv) of this subsection (1).
The board may adopt rules to implement this section and RCW 43.05.160.
[ 2022 c 16 § 107; 2019 c 394 § 3; ]
This section applies to the board's issuance of administrative violations to licensed cannabis producers, processors, retailers, transporters, and researchers, when a settlement conference is held between a hearing officer or designee of the board and the cannabis licensee that received a notice of an alleged administrative violation or violations.
If a settlement agreement is entered between a cannabis licensee and a hearing officer or designee of the board at or after a settlement conference, the terms of the settlement agreement must be given substantial weight by the board.
For the purposes of this section:
"Settlement agreement" means the agreement or compromise between a licensed cannabis producer, processor, retailer, researcher, transporter, or researcher and the hearing officer or designee of the board with authority to participate in the settlement conference, that:
Includes the terms of the agreement or compromise regarding an alleged violation or violations by the licensee of this chapter, chapter 69.51A RCW, or rules adopted under either chapter, and any related penalty or licensing restriction; and
Is in writing and signed by the licensee and the hearing officer or designee of the board.
"Settlement conference" means a meeting or discussion between a licensed cannabis producer, processor, retailer, researcher, transporter, researcher, or authorized representative of any of the preceding licensees, and a hearing officer or designee of the board, held for purposes such as discussing the circumstances surrounding an alleged violation of law or rules by the licensee, the recommended penalty, and any aggravating or mitigating factors, and that is intended to resolve the alleged violation before an administrative hearing or judicial proceeding is initiated.
[ 2022 c 16 § 108; 2019 c 394 § 8; ]
Whenever the board determines that a limited liability business entity has collected trust fund taxes and has failed to remit those taxes to the board and that business entity has been terminated, dissolved, or abandoned, or is insolvent, the board may pursue collection of the entity's unpaid trust fund taxes, including penalties on those taxes, against any or all of the responsible individuals. For purposes of this subsection, "insolvent" means the condition that results when the sum of the entity's debts exceeds the fair market value of its assets. The board may presume that an entity is insolvent if the entity refuses to disclose to the board the nature of its assets and liabilities.
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For a responsible individual who is the current or a former chief executive or chief financial officer, liability under this section applies regardless of fault or whether the individual was or should have been aware of the unpaid trust fund tax liability of the limited liability business entity.
For any other responsible individual, liability under this section applies only if he or she willfully failed to pay or to cause to be paid to the board the trust fund taxes due from the limited liability business entity.
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Except as provided in this subsection (3)(a), a responsible individual who is the current or a former chief executive or chief financial officer is liable under this section only for trust fund tax liability accrued during the period that he or she was the chief executive or chief financial officer. However, if the responsible individual had the responsibility or duty to remit payment of the limited liability business entity's trust fund taxes to the board during any period of time that the person was not the chief executive or chief financial officer, that individual is also liable for trust fund tax liability that became due during the period that he or she had the duty to remit payment of the limited liability business entity's taxes to the board but was not the chief executive or chief financial officer.
All other responsible individuals are liable under this section only for trust fund tax liability that became due during the period he or she had the responsibility or duty to remit payment of the limited liability business entity's taxes to the board.
Persons described in subsection (3)(b) of this section are exempt from liability under this section in situations where nonpayment of the limited liability business entity's trust fund taxes was due to reasons beyond their control as determined by the board by rule.
Any person having been issued a notice of unpaid trust fund taxes under this section is entitled to an administrative hearing under RCW 69.50.334 and any such rules the board may adopt.
This section does not relieve the limited liability business entity of its trust fund tax liability or otherwise impair other tax collection remedies afforded by law.
The definitions in this subsection apply throughout this section unless the context clearly requires otherwise.
"Board" means the state liquor and cannabis board.
"Chief executive" means: The president of a corporation or for other entities or organizations other than corporations or if the corporation does not have a president as one of its officers, the highest ranking executive manager or administrator in charge of the management of the company or organization.
"Chief financial officer" means: The treasurer of a corporation or for entities or organizations other than corporations or if a corporation does not have a treasurer as one of its officers, the highest senior manager who is responsible for overseeing the financial activities of the entire company or organization.
"Limited liability business entity" means a type of business entity that generally shields its owners from personal liability for the debts, obligations, and liabilities of the entity, or a business entity that is managed or owned in whole or in part by an entity that generally shields its owners from personal liability for the debts, obligations, and liabilities of the entity. Limited liability business entities include corporations, limited liability companies, limited liability partnerships, trusts, general partnerships and joint ventures in which one or more of the partners or parties are also limited liability business entities, and limited partnerships in which one or more of the general partners are also limited liability business entities.
"Manager" has the same meaning as in *RCW 25.15.005.
"Member" has the same meaning as in *RCW 25.15.005, except that the term only includes members of member-managed limited liability companies.
"Officer" means any officer or assistant officer of a corporation, including the president, vice president, secretary, and treasurer.
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"Responsible individual" includes any current or former officer, manager, member, partner, or trustee of a limited liability business entity with unpaid trust fund tax liability.
"Responsible individual" also includes any current or former employee or other individual, but only if the individual had the responsibility or duty to remit payment of the limited liability business entity's unpaid trust fund tax liability.
Whenever any taxpayer has one or more limited liability business entities as a member, manager, or partner, "responsible individual" also includes any current and former officers, members, or managers of the limited liability business entity or entities or of any other limited liability business entity involved directly in the management of the taxpayer. For purposes of this subsection (7)(h)(iii), "taxpayer" means a limited liability business entity with unpaid trust fund taxes.
"Trust fund taxes" means taxes collected from buyers and deemed held in trust under RCW 69.50.535.
"Willfully failed to pay or to cause to be paid" means that the failure was the result of an intentional, conscious, and voluntary course of action.
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Except as provided in (b) of this subsection, a retail sale of a bundled transaction that includes cannabis product is subject to the tax imposed under RCW 69.50.535 on the entire selling price of the bundled transaction.
If the selling price is attributable to products that are taxable and products that are not taxable under RCW 69.50.535, the portion of the price attributable to the nontaxable products are subject to the tax imposed by RCW 69.50.535 unless the seller can identify by reasonable and verifiable standards the portion that is not subject to tax from its books and records that are kept in the regular course of business for other purposes including, but not limited to, nontax purposes.
The definitions in this subsection apply throughout this section unless the context clearly requires otherwise.
"Bundled transaction" means:
The retail sale of two or more products where the products are otherwise distinct and identifiable, are sold for one nonitemized price, and at least one product is a cannabis product subject to the tax under RCW 69.50.535; and
A cannabis product provided free of charge with the required purchase of another product. A cannabis product is provided free of charge if the sales price of the product purchased does not vary depending on the inclusion of the cannabis product provided free of charge.
"Cannabis product" means "useable cannabis," "cannabis concentrates," and "cannabis-infused products" as defined in RCW 69.50.101.
"Distinct and identifiable products" does not include packaging such as containers, boxes, sacks, bags, and bottles, or materials such as wrapping, labels, tags, and instruction guides, that accompany the retail sale of the products and are incidental or immaterial to the retail sale thereof. Examples of packaging that are incidental or immaterial include grocery sacks, shoeboxes, and dry cleaning garment bags.
"Selling price" has the same meaning as in RCW 82.08.010, except that when product is sold under circumstances where the total amount of consideration paid for the product is not indicative of its true value, "selling price" means the true value of the product sold.
"True value" means market value based on sales at comparable locations in this state of the same or similar product of like quality and character sold under comparable conditions of sale to comparable purchasers. However, in the absence of such sales of the same or similar product, "true value" means the value of the product sold as determined by all of the seller's direct and indirect costs attributable to the product.
[ 2022 c 16 § 109; 2015 2nd sp.s. c 4 § 210; ]
Cannabis health and beauty aids are not subject to the regulations and penalties of this chapter that apply to cannabis, cannabis concentrates, or cannabis-infused products.
For purposes of this section, "cannabis health and beauty aid" means a product containing parts of the cannabis plant and which:
Is intended for use only as a topical application to provide therapeutic benefit or to enhance appearance;
Contains a THC concentration of not more than 0.3 percent;
Does not cross the blood-brain barrier; and
Is not intended for ingestion by humans or animals.
[ 2022 c 16 § 110; 2015 2nd sp.s. c 4 § 701; ]
Applicants for a cannabis producer's, cannabis processor's, cannabis researcher's or cannabis retailer's license under this chapter must display a sign provided by the board on the outside of the premises to be licensed notifying the public that the premises are subject to an application for such license. The sign must:
Contain text with content sufficient to notify the public of the nature of the pending license application, the date of the application, the name of the applicant, and contact information for the board;
Be conspicuously displayed on, or immediately adjacent to, the premises subject to the application and in the location that is most likely to be seen by the public;
Be of a size sufficient to ensure that it will be readily seen by the public; and
Be posted within seven business days of the submission of the application to the board.
The board must adopt such rules as are necessary for the implementation of this section, including rules pertaining to the size of the sign and the text thereon, the textual content of the sign, the fee for providing the sign, and any other requirements necessary to ensure that the sign provides adequate notice to the public.
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A city, town, or county may adopt an ordinance requiring individual notice by an applicant for a cannabis producer's, cannabis processor's, cannabis researcher's, or cannabis retailer's license under this chapter, sixty days prior to issuance of the license, to any elementary or secondary school, playground, recreation center or facility, child care center, church, public park, public transit center, library, or any game arcade admission to which is not restricted to persons aged twenty-one years or older, that is within one thousand feet of the perimeter of the grounds of the establishment seeking licensure. The notice must provide the contact information for the board where any of the owners or operators of these entities may submit comments or concerns about the proposed business location.
For the purposes of this subsection, "church" means a building erected for and used exclusively for religious worship and schooling or other activity in connection therewith.
[ 2022 c 16 § 111; 2015 2nd sp.s. c 4 § 801; ]
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Nothing in this chapter prohibits a producer or processor from providing retailers branded promotional items which are of nominal value, singly or in the aggregate. Such items include but are not limited to: Lighters, postcards, pencils, matches, shirts, hats, visors, and other similar items. Branded promotional items:
Must be used exclusively by the retailer or its employees in a manner consistent with its license;
Must bear imprinted advertising matter of the producer or processor only;
May be provided by a producer or processor only to retailers and their employees and may not be provided by or through retailers or their employees to retail customers; and
May not be targeted to youth, including any: (A) Statement, picture, or illustration that depicts a child or other person under legal age for consuming cannabis; (B) objects, such as toys or characters, suggesting the presence of a child, or any other depiction designed in any manner to be especially appealing to children or other persons under legal age to consume cannabis; (C) advertising designed in any manner that would be especially appealing to children or other persons under twenty-one years of age; or (D) advertising implying that the consumption of cannabis is fashionable or the accepted course of behavior for persons under twenty-one years of age.
A producer or processor is not obligated to provide any such branded promotional items, and a retailer may not require a producer or processor to provide such branded promotional items as a condition for selling any cannabis to the retailer.
Any producer, processor, or retailer or any other person asserting that the provision of branded promotional items as allowed in (a) of this subsection has resulted or is more likely than not to result in undue influence or an adverse impact on public health and safety, or is otherwise inconsistent with the criteria in (a) of this subsection may file a complaint with the state liquor and cannabis board. Upon receipt of a complaint the state liquor and cannabis board may conduct such investigation as it deems appropriate in the circumstances. If the investigation reveals the provision of branded promotional items has resulted in or is more likely than not to result in undue influence or has resulted or is more likely than not to result in an adverse impact on public health and safety or is otherwise inconsistent with (a) of this subsection the state liquor and cannabis board may issue an administrative violation notice to the producer, processor, or retailer. The recipient of the administrative violation notice may request a hearing under chapter 34.05 RCW.
Nothing in this chapter prohibits:
Producers or processors from listing on their internet websites information related to retailers who sell or promote their products, including direct links to the retailers' internet websites; and
Retailers from listing on their internet websites information related to producers or processors whose products those retailers sell or promote, including direct links to the producers or processors' websites; or
Producers, processors, and retailers from producing, jointly or together with regional, state, or local industry associations, brochures and materials promoting tourism in Washington state which contain information regarding retail licensees, producers, processors, and their products.
Nothing in this chapter prohibits the performance of personal services offered from time to time by a producer or processor to retailers when the personal services are (a) conducted at a licensed premises, and (b) intended to inform, educate, or enhance customers' knowledge or experience of the manufacturer's products. The performance of personal services may include participation in events and the use of informational or educational activities at the premises of a retailer holding a license under this chapter. A producer or processor is not obligated to perform any such personal services, and a retail licensee may not require a producer or processor to conduct any personal service as a condition for selling cannabis to the retail licensee.
For the purposes of this section, "nominal value" means a value of thirty dollars or less.
[ 2016 sp.s. c 17 § 1; ]
The liquor and cannabis board may adopt rules that address the findings and recommendations in the task force reports provided under RCW 43.21A.735.
[ 2019 c 277 § 4; ]
Prosecution for any violation of law occurring prior to May 21, 1971 is not affected or abated by this chapter. If the offense being prosecuted is similar to one set out in Article IV of this chapter, then the penalties under Article IV apply if they are less than those under prior law.
Civil seizures or forfeitures and injunctive proceedings commenced prior to May 21, 1971 are not affected by this chapter.
All administrative proceedings pending under prior laws which are superseded by this chapter shall be continued and brought to a final determination in accord with the laws and rules in effect prior to May 21, 1971. Any substance controlled under prior law which is not listed within Schedules I through V, is automatically controlled without further proceedings and shall be listed in the appropriate schedule.
The commission shall initially permit persons to register who own or operate any establishment engaged in the manufacture, distribution, or dispensing of any controlled substance prior to May 21, 1971 and who are registered or licensed by the state.
This chapter applies to violations of law, seizures and forfeiture, injunctive proceedings, administrative proceedings and investigations which occur following May 21, 1971.
[ 2013 c 19 § 112; 1971 ex.s. c 308 § 69.50.601; ]
Any orders and rules promulgated under any law affected by this chapter and in effect on May 21, 1971 and not in conflict with it continue in effect until modified, superseded or repealed.
[ 1971 ex.s. c 308 § 69.50.602; ]
This chapter shall be so applied and construed as to effectuate its general purpose to make uniform the law with respect to the subject of this chapter among those states which enact it.
[ 1971 ex.s. c 308 § 69.50.603; ]
This chapter may be cited as the Uniform Controlled Substances Act.
[ 1971 ex.s. c 308 § 69.50.604; ]
The state of Washington fully occupies and preempts the entire field of setting penalties for violations of the controlled substances act. Cities, towns, and counties or other municipalities may enact only those laws and ordinances relating to controlled substances that are consistent with this chapter. Such local ordinances shall have the same penalties as provided for by state law. Local laws and ordinances that are inconsistent with the requirements of state law shall not be enacted and are preempted and repealed, regardless of the nature of the code, charter, or home rule status of the city, town, county, or municipality.
[ 1989 c 271 § 601; ]
The board must use expedited rule making under RCW 34.05.353 to replace the term "marijuana" with the term "cannabis" throughout Title 314 WAC.
[ 2022 c 16 § 168; ]
The term "marijuana" as used under federal law generally refers to the term "cannabis" used throughout the Revised Code of Washington.
[ 2022 c 16 § 169; ]